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Let $C([0,T];C(\overline{U}))$ denote the set of all continuous functions $u:[0,T]\rightarrow C(\overline{U})$ with $$\|u\|_{C([0,T];C(\overline{U}))}:=\max_{0\leqslant t \leqslant T} \|u(t)\|<\infty$$

Prove that $C([0,T];C(\overline{U}))=C([0,T]\times \overline{U})$

I am skeptical this is even true. I feel like we could apply a theorem from topology regarding the product space, but am having little success. Not really sure how to approach such a problem. Are there any counter examples that disprove the above? Any help would be much appreciated.

2 Answers2

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I presume the norm $\ \|u(t)\| \ $ is intended to be $\ \sup_{v\in\overline{U}}\left|u(t)(v)\right|\ $. Unless the set $\ \overline{U}\ $ were suitably restricted this would not necessarily be finite. In what follows, I assume for concreteness that $\ \overline{U}\ $ is a compact subset of some Euclidean space, $\ \mathbb{R}^n\ $.

Strictly speaking, your suspicion that $\ C([0,T];C(\overline{U}))\ne$$C([0,T]\times \overline{U})\ $ is quite correct. The members of the first space are functions from $\ [0,T]\ $ to $\ C(\overline{U})\ $, while the members of the second are functions from $\ [0,T]\times \overline{U}\ $ to $\ \mathbb{R}\ $, which are completely different objects. However, there's a fairly obvious candidate, $\ \varphi:C([0,T];C(\overline{U}))\rightarrow C([0,T]\times \overline{U})\ $, for an isometric isomorphism between the two spaces, given by $$ \varphi(v)\left(t,u\right)=v(t)(u) $$ for $\ v\in C([0,T];C(\overline{U}))\ $, $\ t\in[0,T]\ $, and $\ u\in \overline{U}\ $. Therefore, since differently defined isomorphic mathematical objects are often thought of as being merely different representations of the same underlying structure, I expect the request to "[p]rove that $\ C([0,T];C(\overline{U}))=C([0,T]\times \overline{U})$" is using what is commonly called an "abuse of notation" to ask you to prove that the two spaces are isometrically isomorphic.

While I'm fairly sure that the mapping $\ \varphi\ $ I define above is indeed an isometric isomorphism, I must stress that I have not confirmed this belief by checking carefully that it satisfies all the conditions necessary for that to be the case. You will therefore need to do that for yourself

  • Your assumption on $\bar U$ is plausible,the PDE-context suggests that $U$ is an open subset of some $\mathbb R^n$ (see the OP's comments to the question). On the level of function spaces the only requirement seems to be that $X = \bar U$ is any compact topological space. – Paul Frost Nov 21 '19 at 10:49
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For the norm part, just note that \begin{align*} \|u\|_{C([0,T];C(\overline{U}))}&=\sup_{t\in[0,T]}\|u(t)\|\\ &=\sup_{t\in[0,T]}\sup_{w\in\overline{U}}|u(t)(w)|\\ &=\sup_{(t,w)\in[0,T]\times\overline{U}}|\varphi_{u}(t,w)|\\ &=\|\varphi_{u}\|_{C([0,T]\times\overline{U})}, \end{align*} where $u\rightarrow\varphi_{u}$ is defined by $\varphi_{u}(t,w)=u(t)(w)$ for $u\in C([0,T];C(\overline{U}))$.

user284331
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