This is Theorem 1.2.6 in Abbott. Understanding Analysis (2016 2 edn). pp 9 - 10. I'm NOT asking about proof that the author proves. Please don't prove. I'm longing just for intuition.
I can't intuit how, God willing, an equality (on LHS) can be equivalent to a conjunction of strict inequalities (on RHS).
Is there any picture that can assist?