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I am aware of the possible motivations for calling "projective" a projective module (such as, for example, these). However, I have been asked by a student if there is some connection between projective modules and projective spaces, since they share a common name. After a first moment in which I have been tempted to answer negatively, I realized that I actually don't know if this is the case or not. Does anybody have ever thought about this?

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    I don't know enough algebraic geometry to write a detailed answer, but for a ring $R$, one can define the $n-1$ dimensional projective space over $R$ as a scheme, which has as points the summands of $R^n$ of rank $1$ (which are therefore projective). If $R$ is a field, we recover the usual projective space (because any sub vector space is a summand) – Maxime Ramzi Nov 07 '19 at 09:32

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As far as I know, the naming is coincidental.*

I think projective spaces as understood in projective geometry get the "projective" notion from the idea of light and images. That is, one can understand 2-d perspective as light rays being collapsed into points ("projected onto") a canvas from different angles.

But I think the term for modules arises from the mapping property, that if $A\to B$ is a surjection, and $P\to B$ is any homomorphism, then $P$ "projects onto" $A$ as in, "there exists a homomorphism $g:P\to A$". (It does not necessarily have to be an onto mapping, which is why I have it in scare quotes.)

Besides, if you thought there was an analogy between projective spaces and projective modules, then wouldn't there be an analogy between injective spaces and injective modules? Maybe there is: personally I'd never heard of an injective space until I looked it up just now. The term is a real thing, apparently.


*So being only an evaluation based on my experience, there is still a chance there is some deep connection I'm not aware of. Or some connections that establish a connection, and yet were not known historically when the two things were named.

rschwieb
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    I think the term for modules actually comes from the fact that if $P$ is projective, then there is $n$ and a projection matrix $M$ such that $P\cong R^n/MR^n$. Why are these matrices called projections ? Well $M^2=M$ means $M$ sends everything to $\mathrm{im}(M)$ and doesn't move the people that were there: geometrically that's clearly a projection. As for the link, I don't think it's historical, but there is a connection (that was discovered later if there is any coherence to history) – Maxime Ramzi Nov 07 '19 at 14:28
  • @rschwieb Thanks for the answer and for the reference to injective spaces. +1. Indeed, I have never thought about injective spaces before you mentioned them. – Ender Wiggins Nov 07 '19 at 15:32
  • @Max Which the link you mention? The one between projection matrices and projective modules? – Ender Wiggins Nov 07 '19 at 15:34
  • The link I mentioned is the one I commented about below the question : you can define projective space as a scheme over any ring and the definition basically refers to projective modules – Maxime Ramzi Nov 07 '19 at 15:35
  • @Max I thought of that: if $0\to A\to B\to P\to 0$ with $P$ projective, then $P=e(B)$ for a projection in $End_R(B)$. But what left me unconvinced is the symmetric fact for injectives: if $0\to E\to B\to C\to 0$ with $E$ injective, $E=e(B)$ for some projection $e$ in $End_R(B)$. So I didn't really see that it distinguished the two, and it made the link seem unlikely. Of course it could be as you say, that just since people were interested in the first case especially, that's why they gave it the name. Otherwise I'm not very convinced that this idempotent could be the reason for the name. – rschwieb Nov 07 '19 at 16:14
  • That seems to be the claim here : https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/284039/origin-of-the-terminology-projective-module . Of course this isn't more evidence (or it's just evidence that someone else thinks the same). However I don't agree with your counter argument: of course there is some projection $e$ in $End_R(B)$, but most of the time there's not a projection matrix (matrix meaning we work over free modules), so that might be a reason for the asymmetry – Maxime Ramzi Nov 07 '19 at 16:19
  • @Max It could very well be that Dr. Conrad knows better than I :) . Yes, I agree, the fact that there's a free module involved with the projective diagram and not with the injective diagram is an asymmetry. I'm just not sure if that is important or not. – rschwieb Nov 07 '19 at 16:20
  • @Max Or you know what, maybe it has less to do with the idempotent and more to do with the fact that the projective module is the image of a quotient. Do you know anything about "injective spaces"? – rschwieb Nov 07 '19 at 16:23
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Maybe there are more obvious connections (But the appearance of projective modules was contemporaneaous with that of this type of geometry, ~50's)

This connection resides in the universal property of the $n$ dimensional projective space $\mathbb{P}^{n}$. Indeed, provided a scheme $X$, $X$-points of $\mathbb{P}^{n}$ (that is morphisms $X \to \mathbb{P}^{n}$) are classified by pairs of the form $(\mathcal{L},\psi)$ where $\mathcal{L}$ is an invertible sheaf over $X$ and $\psi : \mathcal{O}_{X}^{\oplus n+1} \to \mathcal{L}$ an epimorphism of sheaves (as in https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/01NE).

An invertible sheaf over $X$ is a locally free $\mathcal{O}_{X}$-module of rank one (these are exactly the quasi-coherent sheaves that are invertible for $\otimes_{\mathcal{O}_{X}}$, hence the name). It represents a line bundle over $X$. Before explaining the correspondence between points and such pairs, let's understand why invertible sheaves do represent line bundles.

In algebraic geometry, locally free modules play the role of vector bundles. Provided such a module $\mathcal{F}$ (let's say it is finite), one may attach to it the total space $\mathbb{V}(\mathcal{F}) = \text{Spec}_{X}(\text{Sym}(\mathcal{F}^{\vee}))$ of the vector bundle it defines. Locally on zariski open $U \subset X$, $\mathcal{F}$ is free of finite rank $n$, from which follows that $\text{Sym}(\mathcal{F}_{|U}^{\vee}) \simeq \text{Sym}(\mathcal{O}_{U}^{\oplus n})\simeq \mathcal{O}_{U}[t_1,\dots,t_{n}]$ and $\mathbb{V}(U) \simeq \mathbb{A}_{X}^{n}$ is the $n$ dimensional affine space over $X$. Whence the condition of $\mathcal{F}$ being locally free is that of the vector bundle being locally trivial. (Conversely, provided an affine space $V$ over $X$ that is locally trivial $\simeq \mathbb{A}^{n}$, the sheaf of sections of $V \to X$ is a locally free $\mathcal{O}_{X}$-module.) In the affine and finite case, locally free modules are exactly the finite projective ones (see https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/00NX).

As mentionned above, line bundles are objects of interest for the study of $\mathbb{P}^{n}$. Working over $\mathbb{Z}$ and given a ring $A$, $A$-points of $\mathbb{P}^{n}$ are thus related to projective rank one $A$-modules. There is a "tautological" line bundle on $\mathbb{P}^{n}$ for which the fiber of a point is simply the line in $\mathbb{A}^{n+1}$ it represents. The associated invertible sheaf is the twisted sheaf $\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^{n}}(1)$. This sheaf is endowed with $n+1$ "tautological" sections which yield an epimorphism of sheaves $\pi : \mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^{n}}^{\oplus n+1} \to \mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^{n}}(1)$ (taking the usual affine cover $U_{1},\dots,U_{n}$ of $\mathbb{P}^{n}$ trivializes $\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^{n}}(1)$ and gives $n+1$-sections locally generating $\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^{n}}(1)$). Provided a morphism $f:X \to \mathbb{P}^{n}$, taking the pulled back line bundle $\mathcal{L}=f^{*}\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^{n}}(1)$ and epimorphism $\psi = f^{*}\pi : \mathcal{O}_{X}^{\oplus n+1} \to \mathcal{L}$ establish the above mentioned correspondence.

  • What type of geometry? Projective geometry is a number of centuries old. – Ted Shifrin Apr 29 '25 at 00:22
  • I meant using quasi-coherent sheaves and coherent sheaves, which to me generalizes the concept of vector bundles and projective modules – smogogod Apr 29 '25 at 00:25
  • But what does this have to do with the “projective” in projective geometry and projective space? – Ted Shifrin Apr 29 '25 at 00:37
  • Haa your right, i don’t know if the names are related or if it is a coincidence. I just intended to answer positively to the question whether projective spaces and projective modules are related or not. – smogogod Apr 29 '25 at 00:44