I'm the author of the other question. I will give a more or less detailed proof of the question you made. I will skip the long calculation details, but they are not complicated. I found an approach slightly clearer than what I commented in the original question (which I encourage interested people to think of!)
Let's fix $k,n,t$. The coefficient of $x^{kt}$ in the polynomial $(1+x+x^2+\ldots+x^t)^n$ is clearly equal to the coefficient of $x^{(n-k)t}$. We can write that polynomial simply as $\left(\frac{1-x^{t+1}}{1-x}\right)^n$, and using generating functions of both the numerator and denominator, we can find the following formula:
$$ E_{k,n}(t) = \sum_{j=0}^{k-1} (-1)^j \binom{n}{j} \binom{(k-j)t+n-1-j}{n-1} .$$
So the coefficient of $x^{kt}$ in $(1+x+\ldots+x^t)^n$ is exactly the last expression (remarkably, it is a polynomial in $t$).
If you try to isolate the coefficient of $t^m$ in the last expression what you get is simply the expression of $S(k,n,m)$ of the question you linked. Essentialy, since $E_{k,n}(t) = E_{n-k,n}(t)$ then it is evident that $S(k,n,m)=S(n-k,n,m)$.
With that language, the difference $S(k,n,m)-S(n-k,n,m)$ is exactly the sum you are asking in this post, and then it is clearly 0.
As I said in the other post, it of course can be proven only working with some recurrences and induction, but this is a more transparent proof. Of course, the other question may be restated as proving whether the polynomials $E_{k,n}$ have positive coefficients.