Show that $(0,1]$ ~ $(0,1)$ by constructing a one-to-one correspondence between the two sets. I have seen the other example on here, but I am not sure how exactly to prove it. Do I need to come up with a function that is one-to-one and onto and show that I can map a point from one set to the other set?
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Just define a bijection from one of the sets onto the other one. – José Carlos Santos Sep 26 '19 at 17:28