I am working on this question:
Prove that $X_{n}\rightarrow 0$ a.s. if and only if for every $\epsilon>0$, there exists $n$ such that the following holds: for every random variable $N:\Omega\rightarrow\{n,n+1,\cdots\}$, we have $$P\Big(\{\omega:|X_{N(\omega)}(\omega)|>\epsilon\}\Big)<\epsilon.$$
Is this question equivalent to asking me to prove "almost surely convergence to $0$ if and only if convergence to $0$ almost surely"?
If so, the direction $(\Rightarrow)$ can be proved following this: Convergence in measure and almost everywhere
However, isn't the direction $(\Leftarrow)$ not generally true? I can surely prove that there exists a subsequence $X_{k_{n}}$ of $X_{n}$ converges to $0$ almost surely...
Could someone tell me what this question is really asking about? I don't really want to spend time proving a wrong thing..
Thank you!