Given a finite function $f$ in $\boldsymbol{R}^n$, if set $A$ is a closed bounded set, could I say $\{f(\boldsymbol{x}), \boldsymbol{x} \in A\}$ is bounded?
The definition of finite function is $-\infty < f(\boldsymbol{x}) < +\infty, \forall \boldsymbol{x} \in \boldsymbol{R}^n$.