Happened to stumble across this question and to me it immediately made me assume it's a proof my induction question but doesn't seem to be so.
Question : Show that for every natural $k$ and $n$ we have $$\frac{1}{k(k+1)}+\frac{1}{(k+1)(k+2)}+\dots +\frac{1}{(n+k-1)(n+k)}= \frac{n}{k(n+k)}$$ Hence deduce that the sum above is smaller than $1/k$
I tried to do this by proof by induction but I happened to find no way to link the $n=k$ and $n+k+1$ part and unless I made a stupid error, I don't see how this can be proved by induction.
Does anyone know how one would answer this question? Thanks.