If $G = \langle x,y,z\rangle $ and $x \in \Phi(G)$, the intersection of all maximum subgroups of $G$, then $G = \langle y,z\rangle $.
I have already proved that $\Phi(G) \triangleleft G$.
So i'm basically trying to show that under the given conditions, $x \in (y,z)$.
I know that $zxz^{-1} \in \Phi(G)$ and $yxy^{-1} \in \Phi(G)$... But i guess I'm a little lost