1

I'm looking to solve an issue I am having with the definition of what makes an ODE (Linear or Nonlinear) Homogeneous. It will also settle a debate we are having involving the definition and example provided in our university's course notes.

It is similar to the questions here and here.

The first link relates to the definition that we have in our DE course notes. The course notes were put together by one of our lecturers, and the definition is based on Ordinary Differential Equations with Boundary-Value Problems by Zill and Cullen.

The equation used as an example is $$c_n \left( \dfrac{d^nx}{dt^n}\right) + c_{n-1}\left( \dfrac{d^{n-1}x}{dt^{n-1}}\right)+\ldots + c_1 \left(\dfrac{dx}{dt}\right)+c_0 x = f(t),$$

and the definition provided is

Definition (Homogeneity of a Differential Equation) A differential equation is homogeneous if for a given solution $x$ to that differential equation, any constant multiple cx is also a solution to that differential equation, otherwise it is non-homogeneous. This leads to the observation that every term in a homogeneous DE contains only the dependent variable or its derivatives.

The notes then conclude that the equation is non-homogeneous because the term $f(t)$ does not contain the dependent variable $x$. If f(t) = 0 then the equation becomes homogeneous.

The same lecturer then states that the equation

$$\left(\dfrac{d^2 x}{d y^2}\right)^5 + x^3 \left(\dfrac{dx}{dy}\right) = x^5$$

Is non-homogeneous as it fails the test provided in the given definition. i.e. $x=cx$ shows the equation is non-homogeneous.

$$c^5\left(\dfrac{d^2 x}{d y^2}\right)^5 + c^4 x^3 \left(\dfrac{dx}{dy}\right) = c^5 x^5$$

and we see that it is non-homogeneous. At the same time however, I believe this contradicts the statement provided

The equation is non-homogeneous because the term $f(t)$ does not contain the dependent variable $x$.

I can rewrite the equation

$$\left(\dfrac{d^2 x}{d y^2}\right)^5 + x^3 \left(\dfrac{dx}{dy}\right) - x^5 = f(y)$$

and since $f(y)=0$ it should therefore be homogeneous.

Simultaneously, I have from the second link that

A linear differential equation is called homogeneous if the following condition is satisfied:

If ϕ(x) is a solution, so is cϕ(x), where c is an arbitrary (non-zero) constant. Note that in order for this condition to hold, each term in a linear differential equation of the dependent variable y must contain y or any derivative of y.

This tells me that the definition given in our course notes is indeed not applicable for any ODE but rather for linear ODES. The lecturer who set the notes however strongly disagrees.

This leads me to question what I know about Homogeneous DEs so I found the following definition given in

Ibragimov A Practical Course in Differential Equations and Mathematical Modeling, §3.1.3 "Homogeneous Equations", p. 93:

An ordinary differential equation of an arbitrary order $$F(x,y,y',…,y^{(n)})=0$$ is said to be homogeneous [in general] if it is invariant under a scaling transformation (dilation) of the independent and dependent variables […]: $$\bar{x}=a^kx,\qquad\bar{y}=a^ly,$$ where $a>0$ is a parameter not identical with 1, and $k$ and $l$ are any fixed real numbers. The invariance means that $$F(\bar{x},\bar{y},\bar{y}',…,\bar{y}^{(n)})=0,$$ where $\bar{y}'=d\bar{y}/d\bar{x}$, etc.

This can also be found here on stackexchange with other definitions here.

This however means that differential equations such as

$$\dfrac{dy}{dx}+y^2 = \dfrac{C}{x^2}$$

are homogeneous as the equation is invariant under

$$\bar{x}=a x \quad and \quad \bar{y} = a^{-1}y$$.

Here $f(x)\ne 0$ yet the ODE is homogeneous.

Is there a 'test' that works for all ODEs linear or nonlinear? Should we split the definition of homogeneous DEs into 2 separate definitions? One for linear and one for nonlinear. Can mathematicians agree on one definition as clearly there are conflicts even between textbooks. Maybe more clarity should be given between homogeneous definitions and when they apply or when they don't.

Any feedback or advice would be great. Preferably if there is a concrete definition that agrees on whether or not the equation in question is or is not homogeneous.

Many Thanks and awaiting feedback

Kendall

EDIT: Not a duplicate of What is a homogeneous Differential Equation?

My question seeks to confirm definitions between both LINEAR and NONLINEAR homogeneous ODEs. The duplicate in question refers only to LINEAR ODEs. My question also seeks to confirm the definition as provided in our course notes as the lecturer INSISTS that definition is applicable to BOTH LINEAR and NONLINEAR ODEs. The duplicate question indicates that definition to only be applicable to LINEAR ODEs but with no sources to confirm that, unlike those as given by Geremia, holds absolutely no credit to its accuracy.

Kendall
  • 712
  • 1
  • Perhaps you don't like my comment, but really whether or not one can agree on a notion of homogeneity has no importance whatsoever. Let me explain. The quite nice observations that you have made have been noticed often by others, and cause that it is better to avoid a discussion of what should mean a specific word, when really we only care about the properties of the solutions. So provided that each text follows a specific notion (that is defined explicitly) there is no harm whatsoever. I am among those that never use the term "homogeneous", precisely because of similar observations. – John B Jul 20 '19 at 20:49
  • Summing up: I most certainly agree with your lecturer. – John B Jul 20 '19 at 20:50
  • @John Firstly, maybe a should have said colleague. I am lecturing the course, the course notes were designed by another lecturer. Myself, and other lecturers agree that the equation in question is in fact homogeneous, while the lecturer who set the notes insists it is not due to the "test" when you let y=cy. – Kendall Jul 21 '19 at 00:19
  • I also fully disagree, in this case, with only caring about the properties of the solutions. Students in said class are marked according to their ability to recognise a homogeneous VS non homogeneous equation, regardless of linearity and order. I.e. Students are marked on their ability to classify an ODE such as $y'^{100}-y^2=0$ as homogeneous or non homogeneous. Without a well defined definition, one cannot possibly hope to classify that DE. – Kendall Jul 21 '19 at 00:23
  • @Ken I see, in case it is required by the class you do need a (clear) definition. I have on purpose avoided "non/homogeneous" in my classes, for many years, but from time to time I get a question from the students. I usually reply that it depends on the definition and that it has no relevance for the course. Sorry for not understanding why we should care about it. But about your question, I really think that there is no way that everybody can agree since some definitions are not equivalent (or at least apply to different classes). By the way, it was a pleasure to read your question! – John B Jul 21 '19 at 11:08
  • @JohnB Thanks John! It was a pleasure typing it as hopefully it can bring a bit more attention to the issue. I think I am going to adopt your reply of "that it depends on the definition and that it has no relevance for the course". That I agree is not only true in my case as well, but it is also the safest answer. – Kendall Jul 21 '19 at 11:38

0 Answers0