0

Let $C$ a class such that $C$ generate $B(\mathbb{R})$ (Borel $\sigma$-Algebra).
Let $f:(X,\mathbb{A})\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ a defined function in a measurable space a real values, then

$$f^{-1}(B(\mathbb{R}))\subset\mathbb{A}\iff f^{-1}(C)\subset\mathbb{A}$$

Note we have:

$$\sigma(f^{-1}(C))=f^{-1}(\sigma(C))$$

As $C$ generate $B(\mathbb{R})$ then

$$\sigma(C)=B(\mathbb{R})$$

then

$$\sigma(f^{-1}(C))=f^{-1}(B(\mathbb{R}))\subset\mathbb{A}$$

this because $f^{-1}(C)\subset \sigma(f^{-1}(C)).$

Is correct this?

For the other implications i don't have a clear idea

rcoder
  • 4,665

1 Answers1

1

Your idea is okay (for a proof of it see here) and can be applied to prove that: $$f^{-1}(B(\mathbb R))=f^{-1}(\sigma(C))=\sigma(f^{-1}(C))$$

So the statement can be rewritten as: $$\sigma(f^{-1}(C))\subseteq\mathbb A\iff f^{-1}(C)\subseteq\mathbb A$$

Here ($\implies$) follows from $f^{-1}(C)\subseteq\sigma(f^{-1}(C))$ and ($\impliedby$) can be concluded from the fact that $\mathbb A$ is a $\sigma$-algebra.

drhab
  • 153,781