1

When $n=0$

$1>\frac{1}{2}$ (true)

Then I prove that $$2×n!\geq2^n$$ And $$(n+1)\times n!\geq2^n$$ So I have to prove that $n+1\geq2$

$n\geq 0$

$n+1\geq 1$ (not $2$). Could someone point out what is wrong with my reasoning please?

DDS
  • 3,289

3 Answers3

1

Well, for $n=1$, $1!=1$ and $2^{1-1}=2^0=1$. So the strict inequality $>$ does not hold.

Wuestenfux
  • 21,302
0

Your proof works except for the base case. You need to separately consider $n=1$, then your induction proof goes through since every successive factorial is at least double the previous one (observe that for $n\geq 1$, $n+1\geq 2$).

Matt Samuel
  • 59,287
0

You should always attempt to set up Proof by Induction problems in a more formal and organized manner; for example,

$\underline{n = 0.}$

$$ 0! = 1 \geq 2^{0-1} = \frac{1}{2}. (true)$$

$\underline{n = k.}$ (This is the induction hypothesis) Assume that

$$ k! \geq 2^{k-1}. $$

$\underline{n = k + 1.}$ We must show $(k+1)! \geq 2^{k}.$

$$ (k+1)! = (k+1)k! \geq (n)2^{k} \geq (1)2^{k} = 2^{k}.$$

(as was to be shown)

DDS
  • 3,289