When $n=0$
$1>\frac{1}{2}$ (true)
Then I prove that $$2×n!\geq2^n$$ And $$(n+1)\times n!\geq2^n$$ So I have to prove that $n+1\geq2$
$n\geq 0$
$n+1\geq 1$ (not $2$). Could someone point out what is wrong with my reasoning please?
When $n=0$
$1>\frac{1}{2}$ (true)
Then I prove that $$2×n!\geq2^n$$ And $$(n+1)\times n!\geq2^n$$ So I have to prove that $n+1\geq2$
$n\geq 0$
$n+1\geq 1$ (not $2$). Could someone point out what is wrong with my reasoning please?
Well, for $n=1$, $1!=1$ and $2^{1-1}=2^0=1$. So the strict inequality $>$ does not hold.
Your proof works except for the base case. You need to separately consider $n=1$, then your induction proof goes through since every successive factorial is at least double the previous one (observe that for $n\geq 1$, $n+1\geq 2$).
You should always attempt to set up Proof by Induction problems in a more formal and organized manner; for example,
$\underline{n = 0.}$
$$ 0! = 1 \geq 2^{0-1} = \frac{1}{2}. (true)$$
$\underline{n = k.}$ (This is the induction hypothesis) Assume that
$$ k! \geq 2^{k-1}. $$
$\underline{n = k + 1.}$ We must show $(k+1)! \geq 2^{k}.$
$$ (k+1)! = (k+1)k! \geq (n)2^{k} \geq (1)2^{k} = 2^{k}.$$
(as was to be shown)