0

Suppose $A,B$ abelian groups, such that $A\oplus B\approx A$, can I conclude that $B=0$?

If it's true, is there any hint how to prove it?

Grey Fox
  • 396

1 Answers1

3

No; consider $A=\Bbb{Z}^{\Bbb{N}}=\bigoplus_{n\in\Bbb{N}}\Bbb{Z}$.

Servaes
  • 67,306
  • 8
  • 82
  • 171