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How to show effectively that every finite group is isomorphic to a subgroup of symmetric group

amWhy
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3 Answers3

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In a comment, you asked specifically for how to embed the Klein group $V$ into a symmetric group, so I will show this, which is an instructive example.

Here is the operation table for $V$:

$$\begin{array}{c|cccc} {\oplus} & 0 & 1 & 2 & 3 \\ \hline 0 & 0 & 1 & 2 & 3 \\ 1 & 1 & 0 & 3 & 2 \\ 2 & 2 & 3 & 0 & 1 \\ 3 & 3 & 2 & 1 & 0 \\ \end{array} $$

$V$ has 4 elements, so by Cayley's theorem we can embed it into $S_4$. Pretend that each of the rows of the operation table is a permutation of $0,1,2,3$. For example, the third row $2,3,0,1$ is the permutation that takes $0\mapsto 2, 1\mapsto 3, 2\mapsto 0, 3\mapsto 1$, which people sometimes write as

$$\left({0 1 2 3\atop 2 3 0 1}\right).$$

(In cycle notation, this is $(0 2)(1 3)$.)

We now have four permutations, one for each row:

$$ p_0 = \left({0 1 2 3\atop 0 1 2 3}\right) \\ p_1 = \left({0 1 2 3\atop 1 0 3 2}\right) \\ p_2 = \left({0 1 2 3\atop 2 3 0 1}\right) \\ p_3 = \left({0 1 2 3\atop 3 2 1 0}\right) $$

These four permutations are a realization of $V$ as a subgroup of $S_4$.

For each $i,j\in\{0,1,2,3\}$, we have $p_i\cdot p_j = p_{i\oplus j}$, where $\cdot$ is permutation composition and $\oplus$ is the operation of $V$. For example:

$$p_2\cdot p_3 = {\left({0 1 2 3\atop 2 3 0 1}\right)\cdot \left({0 1 2 3\atop 3 2 1 0}\right)\hphantom{\cdot}} = \\ {\left({0 1 2 3\atop 1 0 3 2}\right)} = \\ p_1= p_{2\oplus3} $$

Once you see how this works, you should go and reread CutieKrait's answer, which generalizes this construction: To embed $\langle G, \ast\rangle$ into a symmetric group, you think of the $i$th row of $G$'s operation table as defining a function $f_i$ which takes $j$ to $i\ast j$. This function can be seen as a permutation of the elements of $G$, and so as an element of $S_{|G|}$. Permutations $f_i$ and $f_j$, composed, yield the permutation $f_{i\ast j}$; permutation $f_e$, where $e$ is the identity of $G$, is the identity permutation, and permutation $f_{j^{-1}}$ is the inverse of permutation $f_j$.

MJD
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What you're referring to is Cayley's Theorem. Effectively, to construct an explicit isomorphism for a specific group with a subgroup of a symmetric group, one must know the details/structure of the specific group, but one can use Cayley's Theorem and its proof as a road map for doing so.

amWhy
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  • Milingona Ana: is there a particular group that you have in mind, for which you'd like to find an isomorphism to an isomorphic subgroup of a symmetric group? – amWhy Mar 07 '13 at 21:42
  • For example Klein group – Milingona Ana Mar 08 '13 at 14:50
  • I disagree that "to construct an explicit isomorphism… one must know the details/structure of the specific group"; I think that's just what CutieKrait's answer does do. – MJD Mar 08 '13 at 18:05
  • @MJD I meant in terms of specifying the details of the isomorphism in terms of the specific group operation, etc. In general terms, yes, it can be specified, but to understand which elements map to which permutation (and to know the specific permutation group to which a group maps), it helps to know and understand the group in question. – amWhy Mar 08 '13 at 18:09
  • MilingonaAna - With respect to the Klein group: Can you find an abelian permutation group of order 4, such that $e \mapsto \text{id}$, and each of $a, b, c$ map to permutations $\alpha_i$ of order two such that $\alpha_i^2 = id$, $\alpha_1 \circ \alpha_2 = \alpha_3$, $\alpha_2 \circ \alpha_3 = \alpha_1$, and $\alpha_1 \circ \alpha_3 = \alpha_2$? – amWhy Mar 08 '13 at 18:16
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for each $a\in G$ let $$f_a:G\to G$$ $$f_a(x)=xa$$ Show $f_a$ is a bijection that is $f_a$ is in $Sym(G)$, the symmetric group of all bijections of $G$. Then $$\psi:G\to Sym(G)$$ $$\psi(a)=f_a$$ is a one-to-one homomorphism (an embedding).