Consider the following question:
Let $f \in \operatorname{RS}_a^b (\alpha)$, that is, the function $f$ is Riemann-Stieltjes integrable over the interval $[a,b]$ with respect to $\alpha = \alpha(x)$, and let $\alpha$ be continuous. Prove that $$\left\{ \int_a^{b-\frac{1}{n}} f(x) d\alpha(x) \right\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}} \to \int_a^{b} f(x) d\alpha(x)$$
What I tried to do was to consider an arbitrary $\epsilon > 0$ and show that $$\left| \int_a^{b-\frac{1}{n}} f d\alpha-\int_a^{b} f d\alpha\right|=\left| - \int_{b-\frac{1}{n}}^b f d\alpha\right|=\left| \int_{b-\frac{1}{n}}^b f d\alpha\right|< \epsilon$$ Now, intuitively this last term tends to zero as $n \to \infty$, so we could always pick a big enough $n$ to make it smaller than $\epsilon$. How can I argue this formally? Is this the correct way to proceed? I feel like I am missing something.