Let $n$ be greater or equal to $1$, and let $S$ be an $(n+1)$-subset of $[2n]$. Prove that there exist two numbers in $S$ such that one divides the other.
5 Answers
HINT: Create a pigeonhole for each odd positive integer $2k+1<2n$, and put into it all numbers in $[2n]$ of the form $(2k+1)2^r$ for some $r\ge 0$.
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1Ok, so for any set S=(1, 2, ..., 2n), we choose all odd numbers from that S, so So=(1, 3,...,2k+1) such 2k+1 < 2n. For each element in S choose those that satisfy (2k+1)2^r, which are multiples of each element in So. Let this set be S2 = (2, 6,...,(2k+1)2^r), as long as (2k+1)2^r < 2n. S2 is necessarily bigger than So, and thus, each element in So can be 'mapped' to multiple multiples of itself. Consequently, any set bigger than S, of size n+1, must also have this property. Is this reasoning correct? – user64093 Feb 26 '13 at 18:38
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I just love this proof, I saw it in 1999 but forgot how to do it so I'm glad to find it here. Your answer is a bit terse tho, I had to stare at it for a while, a novice might have trouble following it. – Gregory Grant May 29 '15 at 03:09
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1@Gregory: Well, it was intended just to be a (fairly generous) hint. – Brian M. Scott May 29 '15 at 03:19
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@BrianM.Scott I got ya. I did go ahead and post an answer with more details. Hope you don't take that wrong, it's not criticism of your answer, it's homage to it. – Gregory Grant May 29 '15 at 03:22
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How do I show that all even elements of $ [2n]$ can be written as $2^r(\alpha)$ where $\alpha $ odd and belongs in $[2n]$? basically how do I know $\alpha \in [2n]?$ – So Lo Nov 18 '19 at 16:10
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1@SoLo Since $2^r \geqslant 1$ for $r \geqslant 0$ it follows that $\alpha \leqslant 2^r\cdot \alpha$ for every $\alpha \geqslant 0$. Thus if $k = 2^r\cdot \alpha \leqslant 2n$ it follows that $\alpha \leqslant 2n$. (And that every positive integer $k$ can be written in a unique way as $k = 2^r\cdot \alpha$ with a non-negative integer $r$ and an odd positive integer $\alpha$ follows from the fundamental theorem of arithmetic.) – Daniel Fischer Nov 18 '19 at 16:52
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@BrianM.Scott. Thank you! Fantastic explanation. We can have repeated $r$? For example both 3 and 5 have $r=0$ in $2^r$. – Avv Jun 28 '21 at 16:39
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1@Avra: Yes, for each $r\ge 0$ there are infinitely many possible choices for $k$. In particular, all odd numbers have $r=0$. All even numbers that are not multiples of $4$ have $r=1$. For this problem, however, we’re lumping together numbers that have the same $k$ but different $r$, so that, for instance, $3,6,12,24,48,\ldots$ are all in the same pigeonhole, the one with $k=1$. – Brian M. Scott Jun 28 '21 at 19:01
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@BrianM.Scott. Since the question says "among", then we can simply prove it for a lump of numbers as you mentioned Mr. Brian, is that correct please? I mean we don't have to consider every single number that is less than $2n$ since prime numbers are not multiple of neither odd or even numbers. – Avv Jun 28 '21 at 19:09
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1@Avra: Since $S$ can be any $(n+1)$-element subset of $[2n]$, we have to show that $[2n]$ can be divided into $n$ pigeonholes such that if two numbers are in the same pigeonhole, one of them divides the other. The pigeonhole principle then ensures that two members of $S$ are in the same pigeonhole and hence that some member of $S$ divides another member of $S$. What you say about prime numbers is not true. If $p$ is any prime number except $2$, then $p$ is odd, so $p=(2k+1)2^0$ with $k=\frac12(p-1)$, and if $p=2$, then $p=(2\cdot 0+1)2^1$. If $p$ is odd, the pigeonhole containing $p$ ... – Brian M. Scott Jun 28 '21 at 19:17
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1... contains every number of the form $p2^r$ that is less than or equal to $2n$, and if $p=2$, the pigeonhole containing $p$ contains the $2^r$ such that $r\ge 1$ and $2^r\le 2n$. – Brian M. Scott Jun 28 '21 at 19:18
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@BrianM.Scott. Thanks again! I got it now. Since there are only $n$ odd integers less than $2n$, and given we have $n+1$ odd integers less than $2n$, so since $n+1>n$, it follows that 1 odd integer is extra and thus two or more odd integers must equal, is that correct? – Avv Jun 28 '21 at 19:46
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1@Avra: Yes, that’s right. – Brian M. Scott Jun 29 '21 at 23:20
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@BrianM.Scott. Thank you! Or we can just follow your argument and say that all numbers that lump together for $k=1$ will be 3,6,12,24,48,… divide each other since they have common factor $2^r$? You considered $k$ as a pigeonhole I guess here – Avv Nov 12 '21 at 19:36
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@Avra: Given any two of the numbers with $k=1$, the smaller divides the larger, but not because they have a common factor of the form $2^r$: it’s because if the smaller of them is $3\cdot2^r$, then the larger is $3\cdot2^s$ for some $s>r$, so $$3\cdot2^s=2^{s-r}\left(3\cdot2^r\right),,$$ where $s-r$ is a positive integer and hence $2^{s-r}$ is an integer. – Brian M. Scott Nov 15 '21 at 20:57
I thought it would be worthwhile to write out Brian's proof with more detail.
Let $A=\{1,2,\dots,2n\}$. Write $A=E\cup O$ where $E$ are the evens and $O$ are the odds. Then $|O|$, the size of $O$, is $n$. Now let $x\in A$. Then by the unique factorization of integers we can write $x=2^ab$ where $b$ is odd. The association $f:x\mapsto b$ therefore gives a well defined mapping $A\rightarrow O$. Since $|O|=n$, $|f(C)|\leq n$ for any subset $C\subseteq A$. Therefore, if $C\subseteq A$ has $n+1$ elements, there must be two elements $c_1,c_2\in C$ such that $f(c_1)=f(c_2)$. In other words $c_1=2^{a_1}b$ and $c_2=2^{a_2}b$. So if $a_1<a_2$ then $c_1$ divides $c_2$. Otherwise $a_1>a_2$ and $c_2$ divides $c_1$. Q.E.D.
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Sorry for reviving this thread. I wish to understand why we can write $x = 2^ab$ based on the unique factorization of integers. – Donald Nov 27 '17 at 16:21
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@LanceHAOH Because $2$ is prime. We can factor any positive integer into a product of powers of distinct primes $p_1^{a_1}\cdots p_n^{a_n}$. At most one of those primes can be $2$. – Gregory Grant Nov 27 '17 at 16:42
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If I understood you correctly, we multiply all $p_i^{a_i}$ where $p_i^{a_i}$ is odd. This result, b, is still odd. Since factorization of integers is unique, only integers with the same b and conseqentially $2^ab$ will be mapped to the same partition. – Donald Nov 27 '17 at 23:35
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@BradGraham. Does this use pigeonhole principle? I also did not understand this part The association f:x↦b therefore gives a well defined mapping A→O. – Avv Nov 12 '21 at 19:43
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@Avra Yes it does. Every number is equal to 2 to the power of something, times by an odd number (that's a result of prime factorisation).So every number upto 2n, maps to an odd number, and that odd number must be less than or equal to 2n (because factors must be less than or equal to products). There are n possible odd numbers upto 2n, so if all numbers upto 2n map to n different unique odd numbers, then if we have a set of n+1 numbers upto 2n, then atleast two of them map to the same odd number by pigeonhole principle. So they share a factor (which is the odd number they map too) – Brad Graham Nov 13 '21 at 21:05
I realize this question is old, but I solved it recently when someone else asked me how to prove it.
The proof I came up with doesn't use the pigeonhole principle, instead it uses Mathematical Induction:
Assume the statement is true for $[{1,2,....,2k}]$
Consider the set $P$= $[{1,2,.....,2k,2k+1,2k+2} ]$
Its easier if we partition it, so we have:
$P_1$ = $[{1,2,....,2k}]$ ,$P_2$ =$ [{2k+1,2k+2}]$
We have to select at least $k$ items from $P_1$ as if we select any less than $k$ items from $P_1$, say we select $k-1$, then the additional three items must come from $P_2$, but this is impossible, as $P_2$ only has two items , so we assume the worst case, and select exactly $k$ items from $P_1$. If we were to select more, by our inductive hypothesis, the proof would be complete.
Okay, lets say our selection is $S_k$ .
Now since it is the worst case, we select our remaining two items $2k+1$ and $2k+2$, as if we selected the remaining two items from $P_1$ we would already be done, by our inductive hypothesis.
Consider $2k+2 = 2(k+1)$ . Clearly $k+1 | 2k+2 $
If we choose $k+1$ as part of $S_k$, we are done.
If we did not choose $k+1$ as part of $S_k$ it is part of $P_1 - S_k$ .
Now consider $S_k \cup \ k+1 $
Something in $S_k$ MUST divide $k+1$ or $k+1$ MUST divide something in $S_k$. This is because $S_k \cup \ k+1$ contains $k+1$ items, so by our inductive hypothesis this must be the case. But if $k+1$ divides something in $S_k$, we have a contradiction, as the least multiple of $k+1$ is $2k+2$, which is certainly not in $S_k$.
So something in $S_k$ MUST divide $k+1$ .
If something in $S_k$ divides $k+1$, then something in $S_k$ divides $2k+2$, and the proof is complete.
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For clarity, if $S_k$ doesn't contain any multiples already, then adding $k+1$must contain a multiple by induction, so there must have been a factor of $k+1$ in $S_k$, which would also be a factor of $2k+2$. But what if $2k+2$ wasn't included, only $2k+1$was? Then how is $S_k$without $k+1$, but instead $2k+1$ definitely a subset with a multiple? I couldn't see in your argument that particular case. – Brad Graham Aug 05 '21 at 11:17
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$S_k \cup {2k+1 }$ is a subset of ${1,...,2(k+1) }$ of size $k+1$, not $k+2$, we need to show that for any subset of ${1,...,2(k+1) }$ of size $k+2$, there is a pair $(a,b)$ such that $a | b$, given we know the analogous statement holds for ${1,...,2k }$. – porridgemathematics Aug 06 '21 at 06:03
Attempt without pigeonhole principle.
Step 1:
Show the amount of primes less than $2n$ is less than or equal to $n$.
Consider the totatives of $2n$. Every totative is either a prime, $1$ or a multiple of primes that do not divide $2n$. So the amount of totatives of $2n$ added to $d$, where $d$ is the number of prime divisors of $2n$, is strictly larger than the amount of primes less than $2n$. And because the number 1 is a totative of any number, then the number of primes less than $2n$ is less than or equal to $\phi(2n) + d - 1$.
$\phi(2n) = r . \prod (p-1)$ where p are the prime divisors of $2n$, and $r = 2n ÷ (\prod (p-1))$. This is just a slight rearrangement of Euler's product formula for his totient function. And $\phi(2n) \leq n$ because $2$ is a factor of $2n$, and $2-1 =1$, which essentially halves the product relative to $2n$. When 2 is the only unique prime divisor of $2n$ then the number of divisors $d=1$, and so number of primes less than that is less than or equal to $\phi(2n) + d - 1 = \phi(2n) = n$.
For $2n$ with more than one prime divisor, $\phi(2n) = r \prod (p-1) \leq n$ because again, two is a divisor, as mentioned above. But suppose $q$ is also a prime divisor of $n$, then $\phi(2n) \leq (\frac{q-1}{q}) n$ and then by the fundamental theorem of arithmetic $\phi(2n) \leq n-1$. Considering each prime factor greater than $2$, where there are $d-1$ of them so, we induce that $\phi(2n) \leq n - (d-1).$ So the amount of primes less than $2n$ must be less than or equal to $n$ when $2n$ has more than one distinct prime divisor as well, because the amount of primes less than $2n$ is less than $\phi(2n) + d - 1$ which is $ \leq n.$ So the amount of primes less than $2n$ is always less than or equal to $n$
Step 2: Show the set of primes, is the largest subset of the set $[1, 2n]$ that doesn't contain a multiple or factor of any of its elements.
By definition a prime is not a multiple of anything but 1 and itself, so the set of all primes up to $2n$ contains no multiples of anything else. Every other number outside of this set, less or equal to $2n$, must be either a multiple of one of the primes, or a factor of them. And there are at most, $n$ primes up to $2n$ , so taking any $n+1$ elements will result in a multiple of one of the primes, or a factor of all of them.
Edit: On reflection of this approach, it's not complete. Step 2 is unproven. The largest set of totally coprime composites needs to be considered as well to make this proof complete.
There are $\sum (i-1)$ coprime composites with two distinct prime divisors upto ${p_i}^2$. Even given ${p_i}^2 \leq 2n \leq {p_{i+1}}^2$, calculating the size of the subset is not trivial, especially when considering additional coprimes between ${p_i}^2$ and $2n$.
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2Your intuition is not entirely wrong: the prime numbers are in a certain sense the most efficient infinite sequence where no number divides another. However, when we restrict to a finite subset of $[1,2n]$, then much denser options are possible. The standard example is the interval $[n+1,2n]$, whose elements are just too close together to divide one another. So the desired bound is exact. Note that this counterexample doesn’t readily extend into an infinite sequence, while the primes do. – Erick Wong Aug 09 '21 at 03:58
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Thanks for the feedback. Are there any areas of maths that have the tools to complete my approach? – Brad Graham Aug 09 '21 at 08:57
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1I’m not sure what you mean by completing this approach, as it seems to hinge upon a fundamentally flawed premise. We know the true bound is $n$, which is very far from the number of primes up to $2n$. If you are trying to learn more about this well-studied problem, the term to search for is “primitive set”. There are famous results by Erdös and by Besicovich in this area for the infinite version. – Erick Wong Aug 09 '21 at 14:12
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Thank you, you understood what I meant. Yeah, the notion of a primitive set is a helpful piece for terminology for me to study. I'm curious about the general forms of primitive sets which are proven larger than sets of primes, in some bound. – Brad Graham Aug 09 '21 at 16:51
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1So one example is the set of all numbers with exactly two prime factors (possibly equal). This set has density about $\log \log n$ times higher than the primes. But it is not the strongest possible result. – Erick Wong Aug 09 '21 at 17:35
This answer probably appears somewhere on the internet.
Make a tree with nodes labelled 1, 2, 3, ... 2n.
Let 1 be the root, and let the parent of k be its largest factor other than itself.
For example, for n = 5, the edges would be:
1 -> {2, 3, 5, 7}
2 -> {4}
3 -> {6, 9}
4 -> {8}
5 -> {10}
6 -> {}
7 -> {}
8 -> {}
9 -> {}
10 -> {}
Essentially, we are grouping (but not partitioning) [1, 2n]: the parent or "anchor" of each number is its largest factor, and numbers may appear in multiple subsets. Examples from the above tree: {8, 4, 2, 1}, {10, 5, 1}, {6, 3, 1}. These are essentially paths from 1 to a leaf.
There's a clear pattern - the set of leaves is exactly {n+1, n+2, ... 2n}.
For k < (n+1), 2k is a child of k, and for k > n, k cannot have a child.
Now, any two nodes on a path from the root to a leaf are a factor-multiple pair. So, a subset with no factor-multiple pair picks one or no numbers from each path. This bounds its length to n.
And for any set of n+1 elements, this construction supplies a factor-multiple pair.
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