Let $n \in {\Bbb N}$ and $a_1, \dots, a_n > 0$. Prove that $$(a_1+a_2+\dotsb+a_n)\left(\frac{1}{a_1}+\frac{1}{a_2}+\dotsb+\frac{1}{a_n}\right)\geq n^2$$
I have been struggling for several hours, trying to prove this horrible inequality. First, I tried the usual "mathematical induction" method, but it made no avail, since I could not show it would be true if $n=k+1$. Suppose the inequality holds true when $n=k$, i.e.,
$$(a_1+a_2+\dotsb+a_k)\left(\frac{1}{a_1}+\frac{1}{a_2}+\dotsb+\frac{1}{a_k}\right)\geq n^2$$
This is true if and only if
$$(a_1+a_2+\dotsb+a_k+a_{k+1})\left(\frac{1}{a_1}+\frac{1}{a_2}+\dotsb+\frac{1}{a_k}+\frac{1}{a_{k+1}}\right) -a_{k+1}\left(\frac{1}{a_1}+\dotsb+\frac{1}{a_k}\right)-\frac{1}{a_{k+1}}(a_1+\dotsb+a_k)-\frac{a_{k+1}}{a_{k+1}} \geq n^2$$
And I got stuck here. The question looks like I have to use AM-GM inequality at some point, but I do not have a clue. Any small hints and clues will be appreciated.