I'm trying to solve the Fredholm equation, $$ \phi(x) = 3 + \lambda \int_{0}^{\pi} \text{cos}(x-s) \, \phi(s) \,ds. $$ I began by using the method of successive approximations and found the iterated kernels, $$ \begin{split} K_1 (x,s) &= \text{cos}(x-s)\\ K_2 (x,s) &= \int_0^\pi \text{cos}(x-t) \, \text{cos}(t-s)\,dt \equiv \frac{\pi}{2}\text{cos}(x-s)\\ K_3(x,s) &= \int_0^\pi \text{cos}(x-t) \, \frac{\pi}{2}\text{cos}(t-s) \,dt \equiv (\frac{\pi}{2})^2 \,\text{cos}(x-s)\\ &\vdots \\ K_{n+1} (x,s) &= (\frac{\pi}{2})^n \,\text{cos}(x-s)\\ &\vdots \end{split} \quad\text{ for}\,\, n=0,1,2,\dots. $$ Noting that the resolvent kernel is given by $$ R(x,s;\lambda) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \lambda^n\,K_{n+1}(x,s) $$ then we find,
$$R(x,s;\lambda) = \frac{\text{cos}(x-s)}{1-\frac{\lambda \pi}{2}}.$$
The equation to be solved is then,
$$ \phi(x) = 3 + \lambda\int_0^\pi R(x,s;\lambda) \, ds $$
which is solved and found to be,
$$\phi(x) = 3 + \frac{\lambda}{1-\frac{\lambda \pi}{2}} 2 \,\text{sin}(x)$$
I have tried confirming this solution by transforming the initial question to a differential equation but cannot find the same solution as shown above. However, I am certain that the answer above is correct. Can anyone see a flaw in my solution?