Let $f: [0,\infty)\to\mathbb{R}$ be a function such that $f(x)$ is bounded if $x$ is bounded.
If $\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x+1)-f(x)=0$ , prove that: $$\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{f(x)}{x}=0.$$
If $f$ is bounded the proof is trivial. Then I assume that $f$ is not bounded; by the first condition, $f(x_n)\to \infty$ only if $x_n \to \infty$; I need to show $\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{f(x_n)}{x_n}=0$, but I can't. Any suggestion?