My textbook claims (without proof, which I'm trying to see for myself) that for every class $C$ there exists a unique class HC such that
$$\forall x (x\in HC \iff (x \in C \wedge \forall y \in x, y\in HC)$$
And the text calls HC the class of "hereditarily C sets".
This is in $ZF^{--}_F$.
First, is this a typo, is it mean to say "hereditary C sets"?
According to wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hereditary_set) in pure set theory all sets are hereditary because the only property we describe as hereditary is that of being a set, and our only objects of discourse are sets. Is the answer here obvious then by taking HC to be the universe class $V=\{x| x=x\}$?