Using the AM and GM inequality, given that $a\gt0, b\gt0, c\gt0$ and $a+b+c=1$ prove that $$a^2+b^2+c^2\geqslant\frac{1}{3}$$
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Using (a+b+c)^2 = 1 but I got stuck – T. Joel Feb 17 '19 at 01:45
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1Where exactly did you get stuck with that attempt? What stopped you from progressing? And also, please edit your question post with this information as that makes it easier for new readers to catch up (they won't have to sift through comments). – Arthur Feb 17 '19 at 01:50
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1Possible duplicate of Knowing that for any set of real numbers $x,y,z$, such that $x+y+z = 1$ the inequality $x^2+y^2+z^2 \ge \frac{1}{3}$ holds. – Martin R Feb 17 '19 at 08:31
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Also: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1572128/42969, https://math.stackexchange.com/q/2256206/42969 – all found instantly with Approach0 – Martin R Feb 17 '19 at 08:32
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@MartinR I've been looking for a tool like Approach0 for a while but didn't know where to find one. Thanks for the link! – Théophile Feb 17 '19 at 15:58
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1@Théophile: More Information here: How to search on this site? and here: Announcing a third-party search engine for Math StackExchange. – Martin R Feb 17 '19 at 17:43
3 Answers
HINT: You can use your idea of squaring $a+b+c$, but also note that $\color{blue}{ab+bc+ca \le a^2 + b^2 + c^2}$, which you can prove with the help of AM-GM. (Hint for proving this: the AM-GM inequality tells us what about $a^2 + b^2, b^2+c^2$ and $c^2+a^2$?)
One more hint (based on a suggestion from user qsmy): let $x = a^2+b^2+c^2$ and $y = ab+bc+ca$. Squaring both sides of $a+b+c=1$ gives $x+2y=1$, and the blue inequality is $x\geq y$. Can you see it now?
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1I know the inequality that you stated, but I just can't seem to connect it with my question, please help. Thanks! – T. Joel Feb 17 '19 at 02:16
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If you expand $1=(a+b+c)^2$, you should find $ab+bc+ca$ pop up. Apply the blue inequality above to this term. – Minus One-Twelfth Feb 17 '19 at 02:24
$$a^2+{1\over 9} + b^2+{1\over 9} + c^2+{1\over 9}\geq {2\over 3}(a+b+c)$$ by AM-GM.
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1I don't really understand how you obtained the result. Could you elaborate please? – Dr. Mathva Mar 30 '19 at 19:16
In the worst case possible you'd get $$a = b = c = \frac{1}{3} \Longrightarrow a^2 + b^2 + c^2 = \frac{1}{9} + \frac{1}{9} + \frac{1}{9} = \frac{3}{9} \geq \frac{1}{3} $$
In the best case possible you'd get $$a = 1, b = c = 0 \Longrightarrow 1^2 + 0^2 + 0^2 = 1 \geq 1/3 $$
Therefore the inequality holds. Didn't use the AM-GM inequality, though.
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