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My attempt:

$p \equiv 1 ( \operatorname{mod} 4) \iff (p-1)/2$ is even $\Rightarrow (-1)^{(p-1)/4} = ((-1)^{(p-1)/2}) ^{1/2} = 1.$

So we have to prove that $2 \cdot 4 \cdot 6 \cdot \dots \cdot (p-1) \equiv (\frac{p-1}{2})! \pmod p$ for $p \equiv 1 ( \operatorname{mod} 4)$.

RHS: $1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 \cdot \dots \cdot \frac{p-1}2$; LHS: $2^{(p-1)/2}(1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 \cdot \dots \cdot \frac{p-1}2)$. We just have to prove that $2^{(p-1)/2}\equiv 1$ mod $p$ ($p \equiv 1$ mod $4$). $p$ is prime, and thus we can say $ 2^{p-1} \equiv 1$ mod $p$ (Fermat's Little Theorem). So, $2^{(p-1)/2}\equiv \pm 1 \pmod p$.

What can I do now?

J. W. Tanner
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MyWorld
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  • Your first line at least is not quite correct. For example, if $p = 5$, then $\left(-1\right)^{\left(p-1\right)/4} = \left(-1\right)^1 = -1$. The $1/2$ power result can be either the positive or negative root. Note, however, I haven't checked the rest of your question yet to see whether or not this is of any particular importance. – John Omielan Jan 28 '19 at 20:44
  • So, $ (-1)^{(p-1)/4} = \pm 1$, and at the end I find that $ 2^{(p-1)/2} = \pm 1$. Does that complete the proof? – MyWorld Jan 28 '19 at 20:55
  • To complete the proof, you need to show that $\left(-1\right)^{\left(p-1\right)/4} \equiv 2^{\left(p-1\right)/2} \pmod p$. Thus, if $\left(-1\right)^{\left(p-1\right)/4} = 1$, then you need to prove that $2^{\left(p-1\right)/2} \equiv 1 \pmod p$. You need to also similarly handle the case where $\left(-1\right)^{\left(p-1\right)/4} = -1$. Although this seems to always be true, I haven't yet figured out a way to prove it. – John Omielan Jan 28 '19 at 21:45

1 Answers1

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We are given that

$$p \equiv 1 \pmod 4 \tag{1}\label{eq1}$$

The question doesn't state it explicitly, but it seems to assume that $p$ is a prime, e.g., for this to always work, plus as it also mentions using Fermat's Little Theorem. As the question basically already starts, we have that

$$2 \cdot 4 \cdot 6 \cdots \left(p - 1\right) = 2^{\left(p - 1\right)/2}\left(1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 \cdots \cfrac{p - 1}{2}\right) = 2^{\left(p - 1\right)/2} \left(\cfrac{p - 1}{2}\right)! \tag{2}\label{eq2}$$

Thus, to prove

$$2 \cdot 4 \cdot 6 \cdots \left(p - 1\right) \equiv \left(-1\right)^{\left(p - 1\right)/4} \left(\cfrac{p - 1}{2}\right)! \pmod p \tag{3}\label{eq3}$$

we just need to prove that

$$\left(-1\right)^{\left(p - 1\right)/4} \equiv 2^{\left(p - 1\right)/2} \pmod p \tag{4}\label{eq4}$$

To do this, note that the second supplement to the law of quadratic reciprocity, such as stated in Legendre symbol and proven in Law of Quadratic Reciprocity, gives that

$$\left(\cfrac{2}{p}\right) = \left(-1\right)^{\frac{p^2 - 1}{8}} = \begin{cases} 1 & p \equiv 1 \text{ or } 7 \pmod 8 \\ -1 & p \equiv 3 \text{ or } 5 \pmod 8 \end{cases} \tag{5}\label{eq5}$$

Also, Legendre's original definition was by means of an explicit formula, where for $2$ it is that

$$\left(\cfrac{2}{p}\right) \equiv 2^{\left(p - 1\right)/2} \pmod p \tag{6}\label{eq6}$$

As such, consider $p \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ means $p \equiv 1 \text{ or } 5 \pmod 8$. In the first case, i.e, $p \equiv 1 \pmod 8$, from \eqref{eq5} and \eqref{eq6}, we have

$$2^{\left(p - 1\right)/2} \equiv 1 \pmod p \tag{7}\label{eq7}$$

Also, $p = 8k + 1$ for some integer $k$, so $\left(p - 1\right) / 4 = 2k$. Thus,

$$\left(-1\right)^{\left(p - 1\right)/4} = \left(-1\right)^{2k} = \left(\left(-1\right)^{2}\right)^k = 1^k \equiv 1 \pmod p \tag{8}\label{eq8}$$

Thus, \eqref{eq4} holds when $p \equiv 1 \pmod 8$. For the second case of $p \equiv 5 \pmod 8$, from \eqref{eq5} and \eqref{eq6}, we have

$$2^{\left(p - 1\right)/2} \equiv -1 \pmod p \tag{9}\label{eq9}$$

Also, $p = 8k + 5$ for some integer $k$, so $\left(p - 1\right) / 4 = 2k + 1$. Thus,

$$\left(-1\right)^{\left(p - 1\right)/4} = \left(-1\right)^{2k + 1} = \left(-1\right)^{2k}\left(-1\right) \equiv -1 \pmod p \tag{10}\label{eq10}$$

Thus, \eqref{eq4} also holds when $p \equiv 5 \pmod 8$. As both possible cases have been checked, we can conclude that \eqref{eq3} is true.

John Omielan
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