Suppose $M_1, \dots M_k$ are smooth manifolds of dimensions $n_1, \dots, n_k$ respectively, then each of the projection maps $\pi_i : M_1 \times \dots \times M_k \to M_i$ is a smooth submersion
This was my attempted proof:
Proof: Let $M = M_1 \times \dots M_k$ and let $p = (p_1, \dots, p_k) \in M$ choose a smooth chart $(U, \phi)$ containing $p$. Then $U = U_1 \times \dots \times U_k$ and $\phi = \phi_1 \times \dots \times \phi_k$ where each $(U_j, \phi_j)$ is a smooth chart in $M_j$. Also note that $\phi = \phi_1 \times \dots \times \phi_k$ means that $\phi(p_1, \dots, p_k) = (\phi_1(p_1), \dots, \phi_k(p_k)) = \left(\phi_1 \times \dots \times \phi_k\right)(p_1, \dots, p_k)$.
Let's now compute the local coordinate representation of $\widehat{\pi_i}$, this is given by $\widehat{\pi_i} = \phi_i \circ \pi_i \circ \phi^{-1} : \phi[U] \to \phi_i[U_i]$. Observe that $\phi^{-1} = \phi_1^{-1} \times \dots \times \phi_k^{-1}$. Letting $(x^1, \dots, x^{n_i})$ denote the component functions of $\phi_i$ we have \begin{align*}\widehat{\pi_i}(x^1, \dots, x^{n_1 + \dots + n_k}) &= \phi_i\bigg(\pi_i\big(\phi_1^{-1}(x^1, \dots, x^{n_1 + \dots + n_k}), \dots, \phi_k^{-1}(x^1, \dots, x^{n_1 + \dots + n_k})\big)\bigg) \\ &=\phi_i\bigg( \phi_i^{-1}(x^1, \dots, x^{n_1 + \dots + n_k})\bigg) \\ &=(x^1, \dots, x^{n_1 + \dots + n_k}) \end{align*}
Then $d\widehat{\pi}_{\phi(p)}$ is represented by the Jacobian matrix of $\widehat{\pi_i}$ at $\phi(p)$ and computing the Jacobian matrix for $\widehat{\pi_i}$ we see that $$d\widehat{\pi}_{\phi(p)} = \begin{bmatrix} I & 0 \\ 0 & 0\\ \end{bmatrix}$$ with $n_i$ many $1$'s down the main diagonal. Thus since $d(\pi_i)_p = d(\widehat{\pi_i})_{\phi(p)}$ in the chart $(U, \phi)$ we have $\operatorname{rank}d(\pi_i)_p = \operatorname{rank}d(\widehat{\pi_i})_{\phi(p)} = n_i = \operatorname{dim}T_{p_i} M_i$ hence $d(\pi_i)_p$ is surjective and thus $\pi_i$ is a smooth submersion. $\square$
Is my proof correct? If not where have I gone wrong?
I would simplify it as follows: "By induction suffices to consider $k = 2$ and then, by definition, there exists charts such that the local expression of $\pi$ is simply $(x,y) \mapsto y,$ which is clearly of class $\mathscr{C}^\infty$ and its derivative has full rank."
– William M. Jan 24 '19 at 05:13