From splitting lemma, we know in $R$-Mod Category, short exact sequence $0 \to A \stackrel{f}{\rightarrow} B \stackrel{g}{\rightarrow} C \to0$ splits if it satisfies one of the following equivalent conditions:
$(1)\ \exists f_1\in\text{Hom}(B,A)\text{ s.t. } f_1\circ f=\text{Id}_A$. $(2)\ \exists g_1\in\text{Hom}(C,B)\text{ s.t. } g\circ g_1=\text{Id}_C$.
$(3)\ \text{Im }f=\text{Ker }g$ is direct summand of $B$.
$(4)\ \exists \text{ isomorphism } h:B\to A \oplus C \text{ s.t. } $
$h \circ f \text{ is natural injection and }g \circ h^{-1} \text{ is natural projection.}$
And $0 \to A \stackrel{f}{\rightarrow} B \stackrel{g}{\rightarrow} C \to0$ splits $\implies B\cong A \oplus C$.
If we only have $B\cong A \oplus C$, is there any example for $0 \to A \to B \to C \to0$ doesn't split?
Related questions:
$(1)$ Example for infinitely generated modules.
$(2)$ Example for abelian groups.
As proved in answer below, it's ture for modules on commutative ring with finite length.
Special thanks for jgon, for his knowledge, time, patience and friendliness.