4

In the first line of Chapter Three of my graduate level text from which I am working from, the author declares the following divisibility relation to be the basis of Chebyshev theorem, but has also been referred to as Bertrand's postulate:

$$S_0: n \lt p_j \lt 2n \Rightarrow p_j \quad\Bigg|\quad {2n\choose n}$$

$$\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\operatorname{(BCT0)}$$

Because I struggled with the first few exercises I attempted in my understanding of the author's justifications for steps taken, I decided that I must rigorously prove this introductory lemma before moving forward. The first step I took, was an attempt at minimization of the factors in the divisiblilty relation, instead of working with the factorials of the binomial coefficient in our original statement, obtaining a lemma that involves the lowest common multiples for the first $2n$ and $n$ natural numbers,which directly follows from our initial declaration, and so I found the proceding statement must also be true if and only if the statement $S_0$ is true:

$$S_1: n \lt p_j \lt 2n \Rightarrow p_j \quad\Bigg|\quad \frac{\operatorname{lcm}(1,2,3,...,2n)}{(\operatorname{lcm}(1,2,3,...,n))^2} $$

$$\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\operatorname{(BCT1)}$$

<Important Additional Note Enclosed>

As one user has already commented, in the strictest sense that one states $a | b$ one requires $\frac{b}{a} \in \mathbb Z$, in what I have stated here I at no point specified that $(\operatorname{lcm}(1,2,3,...,n))^2 | \operatorname{lcm}(1,2,3,...,2n)$ must be true.

When we speak of a divisibility relation $a | b$ in $a,b\in \mathbb Q$ as I have above, we no longer retain the assumptions as one makes in the conventional use of this type of lemma for regarding $a,b\in \mathbb Z$, rather than the requisite of $\frac{b}{a} \in \mathbb Z$ we instead have the requisite of the denominator of $b$ remaining unchanged or reduced by the division by $a$, but never is there an increase in it's total number of factors.

<Important Additional Note Enclosed>

We then consider the unique prime factorization product for the lowest common multiple expressions in $S_1$ from the consideration of the arithmetic law and the exponents of the terms in these unique factorization products implied by the identity for the lowest common multiple in terms of the second Chebyshev function:

$$\psi ( x ) =\sum _{j=1}^{\pi ( x ) }\Bigl\lfloor {\frac {\ln ( x ) }{\ln ( p_{{j}} ) }} \Bigr\rfloor \ln ( p_{{j}} ) \land \ln(\operatorname{lcm}(1,2,3,...,n))=\psi (n) $$ $$\Leftarrow \Rightarrow$$ $$\operatorname{lcm}(1,2,3,...,n)=\prod_{j=1}^{\pi(n)}p_j^{\Bigl\lfloor \frac{\ln(n)}{\ln(p_j)} \Bigr\rfloor} $$

$$\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\operatorname{(BCT2)}$$

This allows one to restate $S_1$ purely in terms of prime factorization products, in mutual consideration over which range our divisor product must be taken as per the inequality stated in both $S_0$ & $S_1$:

$$S_{3a}:\prod_{j=\pi(n)+1}^{\pi(2n)-1}p_j \quad\Bigg|\quad \frac{ \prod^{\pi(2n)}_{j=1}p_j^{\bigl\lfloor \frac{\ln(2n)}{\ln(p_j)} \bigr\rfloor}}{\prod_{j=1}^{\pi(n)}p_j^{2\bigl\lfloor \frac{\ln(n)}{\ln(p_j)} \bigr\rfloor}}$$

$$\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\operatorname{(BCT3.0)}$$

Let the numerator of $\frac{\operatorname{lcm}(1,2,3,...,2n)}{(\operatorname{lcm}(1,2,3,...,n))^2}$ be denoted as $\mathcal N_n$.

We can always be assured that:

$$S_{3b}: p_{\pi(2n)}=\frac{\mathcal N_n}{\prod_{j=\pi(n)+1}^{{\pi(2n)-1}}p_j} $$

$$\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\operatorname{(BCT3.1)}$$

From $S_3$ we can easily then construct an assertion regarding a finite set that dictates that a necessary requisite for $S_1$ (hence also our original statment $S_0$) to be true, $S_1$ is true if and only if it is true that for any $n$ greater than $1$:

$$S_4: \min\Biggl({\Bigl\{\Bigl\lfloor \frac{\ln(2n)}{p_j} \Bigr\rfloor-2\Bigl\lfloor \frac{\ln(n)}{p_j} \Bigr\rfloor}\Bigr\}_{j=\pi(n)+1..\pi(2n)-1}\Biggr)=1$$

$$\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\operatorname{(BCT4)}$$

We finally note the following to be true for all $n$ greater than $1$:

$$S_5: {\Bigl\{\Bigl\lfloor \frac{\ln(2n)}{p_j} \Bigr\rfloor-2\Bigl\lfloor \frac{\ln(n)}{p_j} \Bigr\rfloor}\Bigr\}_{j=\pi(n)+1..\pi(2n)-1}={\Bigl\{1}\Bigr\} $$

$$\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\operatorname{(BCT5)}$$

$S_5$ assuring that $S_4$ is true for all $n$ greater than 1, hence also $S_1$ and our original statement $S_0$ must also be true for all $n$ greater than 1 and our proof is complete.

Adam Ledger
  • 1,260
  • 1
    $\frac{\operatorname{lcm}(1,2,3,...,2n)}{(\operatorname{lcm}(1,2,3,...,n))^2}$ isn't an integer (take $n=3$) while $\frac{(2n)!}{(n!)^2}$ is. – reuns Nov 23 '18 at 04:13
  • yeah but $5$ still divides $\frac{5}{3}$ right? – Adam Ledger Nov 23 '18 at 09:13
  • perhaps I needed to state "the numerator of" $\frac{\operatorname{lcm}(1,2,3,...,2n)}{(\operatorname{lcm}(1,2,3,...,n))^2}$ I mean your point is still valid I see exactly what you mean my statement in the strictest sense of divisibility is crazy because nothing divides a ratio of coprime pairs except that ratio itself so I guess it's how I am stating my case here that's the first flaw true – Adam Ledger Nov 23 '18 at 09:40
  • So you have definitely identified the first significant flaw in the proof, in an axiomatic sense and with regard to the Euclidean division algorithm my statements don't even qualify in terms pf the requisites of operands in roles referenced here, but note that the basis of my argument lies in a minimum value of the exponent of primes within the range specified by the inequality of BCT, not the actual divisibility relations used themselves – Adam Ledger Nov 23 '18 at 09:54
  • 3
    You have chosen a ridiculously complicated way to try to prove a very simple result. $2n\choose n$ is the quotient of the product of all the integers from $n+1$ to $2n$, inclusive, by the product of all the integers from $1$ to $n$, inclusive. The prime $p_j$ being strictly between $n$ and $2n$, it appears among the numbers whose product gives the numerator, so it divides the numerator. Being strictly greater than $n$, it does not divide any of the numbers whose product gives the denominator; since it is prime, it doesn't divide the denominator. Done! – Gerry Myerson Nov 27 '18 at 03:33
  • Ah but if you read my introductory statement, I sought a proof in the context of the work of Chebyshev, since that is the subject for the chapter of my text book that I am currently working on. So from this perspective your choice provides little insight. And it's not that complicated Gerry certainly not ridiculously. That's a ridiculous exageration – Adam Ledger Nov 28 '18 at 05:52
  • You could say the very same thing about the proof that Ramanujan submitted for the theorem, if we are going to restrict ourselves to purely the most elementary proof I don't know if things would be much fun. If there was only one route to QED, and only the most simple provided insight worth consideration, then none of us would ever consider alternative proofs, yet somehow we have over 150 accepted proofs for the law of reciprocity for example – Adam Ledger Nov 28 '18 at 05:58
  • 1
    Reciprocity is a deep and important result, and worthy of a large number of proofs. That every prime between $n$ and $2n$ divides $2n\choose n$ is a triviality, and just what "insight worth consideration" does your proof provide? (and who will read all the way through it to find any such insight?). By the way, if you want to be certain I see a comment here, you have to include @Gerry in it. – Gerry Myerson Nov 28 '18 at 06:06
  • @GerryMyerson a triviality? I'll need some insight worth consideration for your view on what a triviality is for starters thanks fella. As far as what my proof provides in insight, I would have to say it would why the result is completely non trivial, unless of course you consider the arithmetic law trivial – Adam Ledger Nov 28 '18 at 07:28
  • Sorry, I don't know what you mean by "the arithmetic law". But look at the proof I gave in my first comment. The most advanced result it uses is that if a prime divides a product of two integers, then it divides (at least) one of the two integers. You get that the first week of an introductory course in Number Theory; to anyone who has had a semester of Number Theory, it's a triviality. – Gerry Myerson Nov 28 '18 at 11:58
  • @GerryMyerson So ok going to the lengths now of looking up what triviality is defined as in the dictionary, it refers to something if it has a lack of seriousness or importance, so anyone that has had a semester of Number Theory considers the first thing that was taught to them as unimportant? Interesting the lecturer must feel as if he or she has wasted his or her life – Adam Ledger Nov 28 '18 at 12:09
  • Assuming the order in which an educator teaches concepts has some kind of basis in its significance in understanding the proceeding concepts in the unit – Adam Ledger Nov 28 '18 at 12:11
  • They still get their pay cheque which I suppose is the most important thing. It's not as if the majority of first year students will ever amount to anything. That's quite a student debt one gambles with and with little job prospects – Adam Ledger Nov 28 '18 at 12:15
  • Please avoid extended discussions in comments. Would you like to automatically move this discussion to chat?

    unless of course the law of arithmetic being referred to as the arithmetic law is still an issue, but I felt as if it was trivial. I'm in the wrong ear again I suck.

    – Adam Ledger Nov 28 '18 at 12:48
  • I'm not using your dictionary, Adam, I'm using the word the way mathematicians use it: a result is trivial if it is an immendiate consequence of well-known facts. Prime divides product implies prime divides a factor is a well-known fact, and prime between $n$ and $2n$ divides $2n\choose n$ is an immediate consequence. And I still don't know what you mean by "the law of arithmetic". – Gerry Myerson Nov 28 '18 at 21:40
  • ok my mistake fundamental theorem of arithmetic then. And why completely alter the meaning of words of the English language I'm not sure if that applies everywhere I mean why make it the complete opposite meaning of that stated by "non mathematicians" which I guess includes me seeings I don't have your special dictionary – Adam Ledger Nov 28 '18 at 21:50
  • here go and tell the same thing to this Eric chap that answered this one, https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/38917/are-there-any-combinatoric-proofs-of-bertrands-postulate?rq=1 and then I guess visit the cemetery and tell Paul how ridiculous his proof is while you are at it – Adam Ledger Nov 28 '18 at 22:03
  • Eric and Paul were proving Chebychev's Theorem and/or Bertrand's Postulate. Those are not trivial. One step in their proof(s) is noticing that if $p$ is a prime between $n$ and $2n$ then $p$ divides $2n\choose n$. That one step in the proof is trivial (provided one takes as well-known that if a prime divides a product then it divides a factor). And it is for that one simple step that you are providing an absurdly complicated proof. As for dictionaries, mathematicians frequently use words differently from the way non-mathematicians do, e.g., group, ring, field.... (continued next comment) – Gerry Myerson Nov 29 '18 at 23:11
  • If you are going to communicate mathematics, it's a good idea to use the words the way the mathematicians use them. Oh, and you seem to have forgotten to include @Gerry in comments intended for me. – Gerry Myerson Nov 29 '18 at 23:12
  • Bertrand's postulate and Chebyshev are exactly the same thing. And this proof shows that $2n\choose n$ hence the numerator of the lowest common multiple quotient I specified must have prime factors greater than $n$ and less than $2n$ with multiplicities of 1. @GerryMyerson this is the same thing as proving that a prime must exist between $n$ and $2n$. – Adam Ledger Nov 30 '18 at 13:56
  • @GerryMyerson group, ring, field etc all have very clearly specified definitions available on the public domain. Nowhere is it stated that trivial refers to something well known or based on well known facts. – Adam Ledger Nov 30 '18 at 15:10
  • Proving there is a prime between $n$ and $2n$ is not the same as proving that if there is a prime between $n$ and $2n$ then it must divide $2n\choose n$. The former is hard and highly nontrivial. The latter is a simple exercise for the first week of an introductory course in Number Theory. You have provided an absurdly complicated solution for that simple exercise. – Gerry Myerson Nov 30 '18 at 20:41
  • @GerryMyerson that's wonderful that you have had the luxury of tuition in number theory, but as far as I currently understand things relying on myself for tuition, proving $2n\choose n$ must have a factor that is the product of the primes between $n$ and $2n$ is the same thing as proving there exists a prime between $n$ and $2n$. – Adam Ledger Nov 30 '18 at 21:18
  • Maybe this will clarify things: proving that $7n\choose n$ is divisible by every prime between $6n$ and $7n$ is easy; proving that there is a prime between $6n$ and $7n$ is not just hard, it's impossible, since it's false (for $n=4$). So proving $7n\choose n$ is divisible by every prime between $6n$ and $7n$ is absolutely not the same as proving that there is always a prime between $6n$ and $7n$. – Gerry Myerson Dec 02 '18 at 03:29
  • Ok good so if we repeat the same proof as above, but rather for $7n\choose n$ instead, and it does not obey a condition alike the one I have labelled $(BTC4)$, then maybe you will see what I am trying to get at? I realise that just proving $7n\choose n$ is divisible by all primes between $6n$ and $7n$ alone is not sufficient for saying there is a prime between them, but if that rule is obeyed for all $n$ as well? – Adam Ledger Dec 03 '18 at 03:03
  • So far as I can see, what you are trying to get at is a proof that if there are any primes between $n$ and $2n$, then those primes divide $2n\choose n$; that's what $S_0$ says, and your exposition concludes by stating "hence...$S_0$ must be true for all $n>1$." If you are in fact proving more than that, it's not at all clear from your exposition. And the rule that $7n\choose n$ is divisible by all the primes between $6n$ and $7n$ is obeyed for all $n$. In particular, it is obeyed for $n=4$. And once again, you've left out the @Gerry. – Gerry Myerson Dec 03 '18 at 05:12
  • @GerryMyerson ok yes initially, the post was simply intended as a proof for exactly as you stated, the divisibility relation for which is the basis of the proof for Chebyshev theorem. But then I started to think, the elements of the set I defined in $S_4$ and $S_5$ are defined in quantity by the number of primes between $n$ and $2n$. So if I were to apply the same type of condition to another case for which there are no primes in the interval, such a set as that in $S_4$ would be the empty set, therefore disobey a condition that was admittedly, originally only a requisite for the divisibility – Adam Ledger Dec 03 '18 at 18:02
  • only intended* as a requisite for the divisibility @GerryMyerson – Adam Ledger Dec 03 '18 at 19:33
  • 1
    Look I think what it boils down to here is that I haven't looked at the problem for anywhere near the length of time I should have, and it is just wishful thinking on my behalf hoping that I have proven more than I really have, so I'll will step back from this idea and study the approach taken by Larry Freeman in this post https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/356912/generalizing-ramanujans-proof-of-bertrands-postulate-can-ramanujans-approach – Adam Ledger Dec 04 '18 at 22:04

0 Answers0