$$\int\frac1{(a^2\cos^2x+b^2\sin^2x)^2}\ dx$$
So this is the integral in question .
The solution given in book is to divide numerator and denominator by $\cos^4x$ and then substitute $\tan x=t$ in the resulting integral.
Another way of doing this is to substitute $b\tan x=a\tan t$.
So I was thinking if there any other ways to evaluate this integral as it seems to complicated as the given methods are very lengthy.
Any simpler/shorter method anyone could think of ?