Let $T$ be a parameter set (countable or uncountable), and we have the probability space $(\Omega,\mathcal{F},P)$ with a collection of r.v. $\{X_t:t\in T\}$, where $X_t$ are $(E,\mathcal{E})$-valued r.v..
How can we prove that $X^{-1}(\mathcal{E}^T)\subset \mathcal{F} \Leftrightarrow X_t^{-1}(\mathcal{E})\subset \mathcal{F}$?
I think I understand why $X$ can be viewed as $(E^T,\mathcal{E}^T)$-valued r.v.
Also, I think that if we could generate $\mathcal{E}^T$ from $\mathcal{E}$ it would be easier... but not exactly sure how.