There are two statements which to me seem rather symmetric: Let $A$ be a ring, $M$ an $A$-module, and $f : M \to M$.
If $M$ is Noetherian and $f$ is surjective, then $f$ is injective.
If $M$ is Artinian and $f$ is injective, then $f$ is surjective.
The proofs also seem symmetric in a sense: in the first case one constructs the increasing chain of ideals $0 \subset \ker f \subset \ker f^2 \subset \dots$ which is strict when $f$ is surjective but not injective. In the second case one uses the injectivity of $f$ to construct the decreasing chain of ideals $M \supset im \, f \supset im \, f^2 \supset \dots$ which is strict when $f$ is injective but not surjective. However, some symmetry is lost in the assertion of the last part ("which is strict when $f$ is __ but not __"). In the first case I use the fact $\ker f^n = \ker f^{n+1}$ implies that $f$ is injective on $im \, f^n = M$. In the second case I use the fact that $M \supsetneq im \, f$ would imply that $im \, f^n \supsetneq im \, f^{n+1}$ because injective maps preserve strict inclusions.
My question is, is there a way to prove one of the statements in the appropriate category/framework such that the other follows from some kind of formulaic reversal of arrows? This is definitely more of a soft question because I'm not sure what this might mean, but the two situations seem symmetric enough that this might be plausible.