Not a solution to the question, but too long for a comment:
One way to show that there is a solution valid on $(-1,1)$ is to note that $f(x,t) = x^2-t^2$ is smooth (in fact analytic) and hence a unique solution exists locally around $0$.
This can be done with differential inequalities. (A reference is Petrovitsch, 1901, I don't have a more accessible contemporary statement at the moment.)
The next step is to show that the solution is defined on (at least) the
interval $(-1,1)$. Let $I$ be the maximal interval of definition of the solution,
we know that it contains an open interval containing the origin.
One way to do this is to find continuous functions $x_1,x_2$ that are
bounds for $x$ on $(-1,1)$. This allows the domain of definition of $x$
to be extended to $(-1,1)$.
Let $x_1,x_2$ satisfy $\dot{x_1} = x_1^2-1$ and $\dot{x_2} = x_2^2$ subject to
$x_1(0) = x_2(0)=1$. It is straightforward to verify that $x_1(t) = 1$ and $x_2(t) = {1 \over 1-t}$ for $t \in (-1,1)$.
Note that $\dot{x_1} \le f(x_1,t)$ and $\dot{x_2} \ge f(x_2,t)$ for $t \in (-1,1)$, hence it follows that
for $t \in [0,1) \cap I$ we have $x_1(t) \le x(t) \le x_2(t)$ and for $t \in (-1,0] \cap I$
we have $x_2(t) \le x(t) \le x_1(t)$.
Since $x_1,x_2$ are bounded on compact intervals in $(-1,1)$ it follows that $(-1,1) \subset I$.
Note that this is a weaker conclusion that the existence of a power series
with radius of convergence one. Cauchy Kovalevskaya shows that there is a locally real analytic solution, however this is not enough to conclude, a priori, that there is a single series with radius one.
Yves Daoust's result shows that the $a_n$ are bounded, and hence the radius
of convergence is at least one.