I read the proof from https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Hall%27s_Marriage_Theorem/General_Set.
Here are screenshots from that link:

I suspect that the statement
Then for any $k\in I$, $\left\{ {g \left({x}\right): g \in \mathcal F \land k \in \operatorname{Dom} \left({g}\right)}\right\}$ is finite
is possibly not correct.
My reasoning: If $I$ is infinite, then for any $k$, it is possible that the number of function $g$ such that $g \in \mathcal F$ and $k \in \operatorname{Dom} \left({g}\right)$ is infinite by adding a new element from $I$ to the domain of existing function $g$.
Please check if my spot is correct! Thank you so much!