The autocovariance of an Ornstein–Uhlenbeck process $$ dX(t) = \theta (\mu - X(t))dt + \sigma dW(t) $$
is given on Wikipedia as $$ \operatorname{Cov}(X(s),X(t)) = \frac{\sigma^2}{2\theta}(e^{-\theta|t-s|} - e^{-\theta(t+s)}) . \tag{1} $$
which seems to depend on the time of origin since it has a $t+s$ term.
On the other hand, the discrete-time analog of the O-U process is the AR(1) process $$ X_{i+1} = \theta' (\mu' - X_i) + \sigma' Z_{i+1} $$
which has autocovariance (again according to Wikipedia) $$ \operatorname{Cov}(X_{i+n},X_i) = \frac{(\sigma')^2}{1-(\theta')^2}(\theta')^{|n|} \tag{2} $$
which only depends on the lag $n$. How does one reconcile the two? I can see that in the limit of $t,s \to \infty$ in such a way that $t-s = n$, (1) becomes $$ \operatorname{Cov}(X(s),X(t)) = \frac{\sigma^2}{2\theta}e^{-\theta|n|} \tag{3} $$
but it is not clear how this relates to (2).
Also, if we have a time series of O-U realization (for which we do not know the origin of time), what do we actually get when we compute sample autocovariance: (1) or (2)?
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If I discretize the O-U process, then I get $$ X_{t+1} - X_t = \theta (\mu - X_t) \delta t + \sigma \sqrt{\delta t} Z_{t+1} , $$
or after re-arranging $$ X_{t+1} = \theta \mu \delta t + (1- \theta \delta t) X_t + \sigma \sqrt{\delta t} Z_{t+1} . $$
If I compare this now to (2), I see that $\theta'= \theta \delta t - 1$ and $\sigma' = \sigma \sqrt{\delta t}$ so that on substitution into (3) I get $$ \operatorname{Cov}(X(s),X(t)) = \frac{(\sigma')^2 /\delta t}{2(1+\theta')/\delta t}e^{-\theta|n|} = \frac{(\sigma')^2}{2(1+\theta')}e^{-\theta|n|} \tag{4} $$
but it still does not have the form of (2).