I am reading a paper in the genomics field (Adjusting batch effects in microarray expression data using empirical Bayes methods. from W. Evan Johnson, Cheng Li), where they try to correct for some noise related to the experimental procedure. What they do is that they use empirical bayes to estimate batch effect parameters from the data. They model the data as follow:
$Y_{ijq}$ = $\alpha_{g}$ + X$\beta_{g}$ + $\gamma_{ig}$ + $\delta_{ig}\epsilon_{ijg}$
where $\alpha_{g}$ and $X\beta_{g}$ composes the true value of the gene expression and $\gamma_{ig}$,$\delta_{ig}$ and $\epsilon_{ijg}$ represent the additive batch effect, the multiplicative batch effect and the error term respectively. When they want to estimate the additive and multiplicative batch effect, they assume $\gamma_{ig}$ ~ N($Y_{i}$,$\tau^{2}_{i}$) and $\delta^{2}_{ig}$ ~ Inverse Gamma($\lambda_{i}$, $\theta_{i}$).
My questions are the following: 1) what is the reason one of the estimates follows a normal distribution and the other one follows a inverse Gamma distribution?
2) Generally speaking when do we use Inverse Gamma distribution? Why not Gamma distribution? What is the main difference between Gamma and Inverse Gamma distribution?
I am not a mathematician, It's the first time I see gamma, beta, inverse distributions and I'm a little bit lost.
Hope you will be able to help me.