To answer the (implicit) question: Yes, your proof is certainly "lacking". In fact it makes no sense: Saying something is bounded above by $AB$ makes no sense, because $AB$ is not a number.
What you say you want to prove is not true - you're leaving out an important hypothesis. If $A=B=[-2,-1]$ then $\sup(AB)=4$ and $\sup(A)\sup(B)=1$.
Hint: Once you get the hypotheses straight this is very easy: Since $\sup(AB)$ is the least upper bound of $AB$, to show that $\sup(AB)\le\sup(A)\sup(B)$ you just need to show that $\sup(A)\sup(B)$ is an upper bound for $AB$.
In other words, you need to show that if $x\in AB$ then $x\le\sup(A)\sup(B)$. And that's obvious: If $x\in AB$ then $x=ab$ for some $a\in A$ and $b\in B$. Hence $a\le\sup(A)$ and $b\le\sup(B)$, so $x=ab\le\sup(A)\sup(B)$.
Except that that's wrong; in fact knowing that $a\le\sup(A)$ and $b\le\sup(B)$ does not imply that $ab\le\sup(A)\sup(B)$! Why not? Annd what could you assume about $A$ and $B$ to fix this?
Note that the counterexample $A=B=[-2,-1]$ gives a hint regarding the "why not?" above... $-2<-1$ but $(-2)(-2)>(-1)(-1)$.