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Let $A \subset M$ be a closed and g-convex (geodesically convex) set on a Riemannian and compact and geodesically complete manifold $M$. It is known that when $M$ is the euclidean space $A$ is a topological closed ball.

I wonder if every closed and g-convex set is topologically equivalent to a closed ball.

Thanks in advance.

jaogye
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If $A=\bar S$ for an open set $S$ and any two points in $A$ can be joined by a unique minimizing geodesic with interior completely lying in $S$ (i.e. $S$ is strongly convex), then $S$ is homeomorphic to the open unit ball by this argument. This does not directly imply that $A$ is homeomorphic to a closed unit ball (think of the sphere with a point removed - this is topologically an open disk, but its closure in the sphere is not a closed disk). However, one could think of finding $S'\supset A $ also strongly convex and using a homeomorphism of $S'$ to a larger ball, but apparently this does not always work, see here.

If you do not assume that $A$ is the closure of an open, strongly convex set, then there are many counterexamples, as has been pointed out in the comments already. The most apparent being $A=M$ itself or $A$ being a small closed segment of a geodesic.

Jan Bohr
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  • The set $A$ that I am thinking is the level set of a g-convex function $f:M \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$. So you answer can work since I am interested to see if $A$ contains holes or not. Dear @Jan Bohr many thanks for your answer. – jaogye Mar 29 '18 at 09:51