Claim: if $f$ is a function and $g$ is a function and $a$ is the only solution to equation $$g(x)=g(a)$$ and $$\lim_{x\to a} g(x) = g(a)$$ and $$\lim_{y \to g(a)} f(y) = L$$ then $$\lim_{x\to a} f(g(x)) = L$$
Proof: $$\lim_{x\to a} g(x) = g(a)$$ so for every positive real number $\epsilon$ there exists positive real number $\delta$ such that from the fact $$0<|x-a|<\delta$$ follows $$|g(x)-g(a)|<\epsilon$$
Similiraly, $$\lim_{y\to g(a)} f(y) = L$$ so for every positive real number $\zeta$ there exists positive real number $\Delta$ such that from the fact $$0<|y-g(a)|<\zeta$$ follows $$|f(y)- L|<\Delta$$
Now we set y = g(x).
From the first limit we have that there exists some $\delta$ that from $$0<|x-a|<\delta$$ we get $$|g(x)-g(a)|<\zeta$$ because from the first limit we know that $\epsilon$ is any real number. But we know that $a$ is the only solution to the equation $$g(x)=g(a)$$ so from the fact that $$0<|x-a|<\delta$$ we can conclude that $$0<|g(x)-g(a)|<\zeta$$ Now we have that from the fact that $$0<|x-a|<\delta$$ we conclude that $$0<|g(x)-g(a)|<\zeta$$ and from that we conclude that $$|f(g(x))- L|<\Delta$$ so
$$\lim_{x\to a} f(g(x)) = L$$
Q.E.D.
Is this proof valid ? If so what are other sufficient conditions for such a chain rule ?
\lvertand\rvertare left and right delimiters, respectively. – Mar 08 '18 at 15:28