I know that $\frac{1}{n}$ converges to zero. So if I can show that $x_n - x_{n-1}$ is bounded then by the squeeze theorem, I would have the desired result. I have tried to show that $x_n - x_{n-1}$ is bounded by seeing $(x_n - x_{n-2}$ as a Cauchy sequence but I am not getting anywhere.
Asked
Active
Viewed 111 times
5
-
Another one: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1146891/42969 – both found with Approach0 – Martin R Feb 28 '18 at 21:25