Suppose we need to prove statement of the form either $P$ or $Q$. Is it sufficient to prove $P$ whenever not $Q$. Or do we need to show $Q$ whenever not $P$ holds as well?
I was trying to prove this:
Let $G$ have order $4$. Either $G$ is cyclic or every element of $G$ is its own inverse. Thus, show that G is abelian.
Here's my own attempt of proof.
Let $|G|=4$. Suppose there is no element $x\in G$ such that $x=x^{-1}$ i.e. $x^2=e$. Then we need to show $G$ is cyclic. Let $y\in G$ with $y\ne e$ be arbitrary. Thus, $\langle y \rangle$ is a cyclic subgroup of $G$. By Lagrange's Theorem, $|\langle y\rangle |= |y|$ divides $|G|$. Since, $|y|$ cannot be equal to $2$ (by our supposition), it must be the case that $|y|=4$. Hence $G=\langle y\rangle $.
In a similar way, we could show if $G$ is not cyclic, every element of G is its own inverse. Abelianess follows from these two consequences.