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I have to prove that $T(M \times N) \cong T(M) \times T(N)$. I think I found a map but I cannot prove that is a diffeomorphism. That is the map :
$F : T(M \times N) \to T(M) \times T(N)$ defined by $F((m,n),X) = ((m,(\pi_{1})_{\star,(m,n)}(X)),(n,(\pi_{2})_{\star,(m,n)}(X)))$
where $\pi_1 : M \times N \to M$ and $ \pi_2 : M \times N \to N$ are the projections and the "little star" represent the push-forward.
I might be wrong but, since projections are submersions, the map is surjective and it's also injective from a direct check. So it's enought to check that is a local diffeomorphism or that is $C^\infty$ with a $C^\infty$ inverse. There is a way to show this without using local charts? I've tried with local charts on $T(M\times N)$ induced by charts on M and N but nothing came out.

M.B.
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  • Another way to describe the map F is :
    $((m,n),X) \mapsto ((\pi_1(m,n),(\pi_1){\star,m}(X))),(\pi_2(m,n),(\pi_2){\star,n}(X)))$
    right? Can I use this better?
    – M.B. Feb 07 '18 at 15:27
  • I think you probably have to use charts even to know what the tangent bundle of the product manifold is. It's hard to jump in the middle and to know exactly what you're taking as given and what you're not taking as given. – Ted Shifrin Feb 07 '18 at 19:43

1 Answers1

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Now the idea using local charts I think is the following :

Let $(U,\phi)$ be a local chart for $M$ , $(V,\psi)$ be a local chart for $N$, and so $(U\times V,\Phi:= \phi\times \psi)$ is a local chart for $M\times N$ by definition, and $(TU, \tilde \phi)$ $(TV,\tilde \psi)$ $(T(U\times V), \tilde\Phi)$ will be the induced local charts in $TM, TN $ and $T(M\times N)$. Now the same way you constructed $F$ it is easy to construct $F^{-1}$ using the inclusions instead of the projections and now the only problem is to check that this maps are in fact smooth. Now I will do this for $F$, and $F^{-1}$ is analogous.

So in these local charts we have that $(\tilde \phi\times \tilde \psi)\circ F\circ(\tilde \Phi)^{-1}(x_1,...x_m,y_1,...,y_n,\epsilon_1,...\epsilon_m,\eta_1,...,\eta_n)=\\= (\tilde \phi\times \tilde \psi)\circ F(\phi^{-1}(x_1,...x_m),\psi^{-1}(y_1,...,y_n),\epsilon_1,...,\epsilon_m,\eta_1,...,\eta_n)=\\=(\tilde\phi\times \tilde \psi)(\phi^{-1}(x_1,...x_m),\epsilon_1,...,\epsilon_m,\psi^{-1}(y_1,...,y_n),\eta_1,...,\eta_n)=\\ =(x_1,...,x_m,\epsilon_1,...\epsilon_m,y_1,...,y_n,\eta_1,...,\eta_n)$

Now to clarify what is happening when we apply $F$ at the tangent vector that this $v=\epsilon_1 \frac{\partial}{\partial x_1}+...+\epsilon_n \frac{\partial}{\partial x_n}+...+\eta_1 \frac{\partial}{\partial y_1}+...+\eta_n \frac{\partial}{\partial y_n}$, we need to look at the diferentials $d\pi_1$ and $d\pi_2$. I will only look at one of them since the other is analogous. So for example at $d\pi_1(\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i})=\sum_{j=1}^{m}\frac{(\phi\circ \pi_1 \circ (\phi\times \psi)^{-1} )^j}{\partial x_i}\frac{\partial }{\partial x_j}=\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}$, and $d\pi_1(\frac{\partial}{\partial y_i})=\sum_{j=1}^{m}\frac{(\psi\circ \pi_1 \circ (\phi\times \psi)^{-1} )^j}{\partial y_i}\frac{\partial }{\partial x_j}=0$.

Someone
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