So what I mean precisely: take $(\mathbb{R}, \mathcal{T}_{eucl})$ can we find a function $f$ for every closed $A, B \subset \mathbb{R}$ such that $A \subset f^{-1}(\{0\})$ and $B \subset f^{-1}(\{1\})$ and $f'$ is continious?
I think this makes sense because we can find a continious function $f$ such that this is true, and then redefine $f$ in a small neighboorhood around a point where $f'$ is not continious such that it is smooth, but I can't proof it, and I can't find mentoin anywhere on the internet, so I'm wondering whether this is actually true.