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suppose that $E \subset D \subset F$,Where $E,F$ are fiels,and the $D$ is a Domain,how to show $D$ is a field ? I am trying to show $\forall d \in D$,$d^{-1}\in D$,but I have no idea how to show it

Bruce
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3 Answers3

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As stated, the claim is false: $ \mathbb Q \subset \mathbb Q[x] \subset \mathbb Q(x) $ is a counterexample.

The claim is true if $F/E$ is finite. In this case, $D$ is a finite dimensional vector space over $E$ and so the map $D \to D$ given by $x \mapsto ax$ for $a \in D$ is surjective because it is injective when $a\ne0$.

More generally, the claim is true if $F/E$ is algebraic but not necessarily finite. In this case, take $a \in D$. Then $E[a]$ is a finite dimensional vector space over $E$ and the argument above still works.

lhf
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Counter-example: let $K$ be field, and consider: $$K\subset K[X]\subset K(X).$$

Bernard
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I assumed that $F$ is a finite extension of $E$.

Because $F$ is a finite extension of $E$ we know that $d$ is algebraic over $E$.

Let $degf_{E}^d(x)=n$. Then we have

$$E(d)=\{a_0+a_1d+a_2d^2+\cdots+a_{n_{-1}} d^{n-1}\mid a_i\in E, i=0,1,...,n-1\}$$ Since $D$ is an integral domain, $a_0+a_1d+a_2d^2+\cdots+a_{n_{-1}} d^{n-1}\in D$ and so $E(d)\subset D$. In particular $d^{-1}\in E(d)$, so $d^{-1}\in D$

1ENİGMA1
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