If $w = z^n$, then given any point $w = r e^{i \theta}$ with $r > 0, \theta \in \mathbb{R}$, there are $n$ distinct points of the $z$-plane with $w$ as their image:
$$z = \sqrt[n]{r} e^{i(\theta + 2 \pi k)/n} \ \text{ for } \ k = 0, 1,..., n-1$$
To define an inverse of $w$, we need the map to be univalent. The textbook I'm following (Silverman) states that to get the maximal domain in which $w$ is univalent, we must have $c < \arg(z) < c + 2 \pi/n \ $ for some real number $c$.
If we arbitrarily choose $c = 0$, we get $0 < \arg(z) < 2 \pi/n \implies 0 < \arg(w) < 2 \pi$, so that we have a branch cut along the positive real axis in the $w$-plane.
My question is, why can we not choose $0 \le \arg(z) < 2 \pi/n$?
They seem to be implying that it will break the univalence, but I'm having trouble seeing where this occurs. As far as I can tell, neither the injectivity nor analyticity would be broke if we included $\arg(z) = 0$ as an option, and in this case, the image of $w$ would be the entire $w$-plane, so that no branch cuts occur.
My thought process on the injectivity was that, if $w = z^n= r$, a positive real number, then
$$z = \sqrt[n]{r} e^{2 \pi k i/n} \ \text{ for k= 0, 1,..., n-1 }$$ Are the $n$ distinct points mapping $w$ maps to $r$. If we restrict ourselves to $0 \le \arg(z) < 2 \pi/n$, then $z = \sqrt[n]{r}$ is the only option, implying a one-to-one mapping.