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The FlT (Fermat's Little Theorem) fails for only composite numbers, and my question concerns with any pattern being followed in their failure cases - in terms of the size of the permutation set, and the number of elements in that set. If yes, then the reason is also needed. I mean by permutation set the set of permutations in a group that is separated only by rotations in the combinatorial interpretation. The combinatorial interpretation of FlT is based on a circular bead with $a$ colors, and $p$ being the number of beads, or the string size. Also, the same color strings (all same color beads) are ignored. this leads to $a$(one string for each color) subtraction from the $a^n$. This should lead to $p\mid (a^p - a)$. Also, this $a$ subtraction makes the failure cases (only for non-prime integers) being different from the not-failure cases (for prime integers), in the combinatorial interpretation.

So, if $a=2$, then there are 2 colors, $B$(Black) and $W$(White).

Coming back to the question, for example, for $a =2$ and $p=4$, there is one failure case of size two (i.e., two permutations in the set) :

i) $BWBW= WBWB$.

While for the case of $a =2$ and $p=6$, there are three failure cases with sizes $2,3,3$ respectively as:

i) $BWBWBW= WBWBWB$

ii) $BBWBBW=WBBWBB=BWBBWB$

iii) $WWBWWB=BWWBWW=WBWWBW$

I can see that $6$ factors into two factors $2$ and $3$, but that does not help.


Addendum The other or non-failure permutations for the case of $a=2$ and $p=4$ are : $$BWWW=WBWW=WWBW=WWWB \\ BBWW=WBBW=WWBB=BWWB \\ BBBW=WBBB=BWBB=BBWB,$$

The $=$ sign equates the equivalent permutations separated by a rotation only.

Similarly, there are $54$ non-failure permutations in group of $6(=p)$ are there for $a=2$ and $p=6$. The $8$ failure cases are specified above.

jiten
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    This does not resemple FlT in the form that I am used to. What is a "permutation set" in this case? What exactly does "$BWBW= WBWB$" mean? – Arthur Nov 25 '17 at 13:51
  • Please see my edit to OP. – jiten Nov 25 '17 at 14:12
  • $BWBW=WBWB$ means that the two permutations are separated by a rotation of ($p=$) $4$ beads on a circular string (before cutting the string in a given fixed position). Also, only two colors are assumed, i.e ($a=2$), $B$ (black), $W$ (white). – jiten Nov 25 '17 at 14:52
  • ... and it's counted as a failure because there are four rotations, but only two sequences in $BWBW = WBWB$? Are $WWWW$ and $BBBB$ special cases and not counted as failures? Or have I misunderstood? – Arthur Nov 25 '17 at 15:02
  • Yes the $a$ same color strings are ignored, please see my edit to OP above. – jiten Nov 25 '17 at 16:06
  • +1. You put much effort to this question. However, you should've referred readers to the previous one. Not everyone is used to this approach to the Fermat's little theorem. https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2536229/why-need-prime-number-in-fermats-little-theorem –  Nov 26 '17 at 03:06
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    As far as I know, there's no recognizable pattern of your concern. See: Fermat's pseudoprimes. Bonus point if you can guess who I am. –  Nov 26 '17 at 03:11
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    How can I guess, very implausible thought! – jiten Nov 26 '17 at 06:36
  • Also, good references of the combinatorial approach are: (i) https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2536827/question-arising-from-combinatorial-proof-of-fermats-little-theorem , (ii) https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2094484/fermats-little-theorems-combinatorial-proof/2094492#2094492 . – jiten Dec 18 '17 at 09:18

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