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Any ideas about how to show this neatly? I have seen a way using inequality between geometric and arithmetic mean. Is there a simpler way?

Guy Fsone
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1 Answers1

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Assume that $a>1$. Write $a=1+p$ for some $p>0$. We know the inequality that $(1+p/n)^{n}\geq 1+p$, so $a^{1/n}\leq 1+p/n$. Now $a^{1/n}\geq 1$, squeeze theorem gives the result. For $a=1$, nothing to prove. For $a<1$, consider $1/a^{1/n}$.

user284331
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