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In J. P. Serre's book Local Fields, in the proof of one proposition it says:

If $K$ is locally compact, it is complete.

How did he deduce that? As far as I know, there is no correlation between locally compactness and completion. So I assume he used the fact that $K$ is a valued field, but how?

2 Answers2

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You are right: a locally compact metric space isn't necessarily complete. But every metrizable locally compact group is complete.

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Hint: Let $K$ be a locally compact topological field and $\overline{K}$ its completion. Then $K$ is a subfield of $\overline K$, and hence closed (so in particular, complete.)

Andres Mejia
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