The Baire-$0$ functions, $\mathcal{B}_{0}$, are defined as the continuous real functions, and the Baire-$n$ functions, which I denote as $\mathcal{B}_{n}$, are defined as functions which can be expressed as pointwise limits of a sequence of functions $\{f_k\}_{k \geq 1}$ where each $f_k \in \bigcup_{0\leq i < n} \mathcal{B}_{i}$. According to Wikipedia, some authors require the additional condition that if $f \in \mathcal{B}_{n}$, then $f \notin \mathcal{B}_{i}$ for any $i <n$.
Wiki also states that Baire functions are defined in terms of ordinal numbers. In other words, we consider Baire functions of class $\alpha$ for any countable ordinal $\alpha$ instead of Baire functions of class $n$ where $n$ is a natural number (zero inclusive).
What exactly goes wrong if we work with natural numbers? Why do we need to use ordinals?
I don't know much about ordinals, so sorry if this is a naive question.