Suppose we write $f(z)$ in polar form, that is
$f(z) = \vert f(z) \vert e^{i \arg(f(z))}; \tag 1$
if we set
$g(z) = \ln (\vert f(z) \vert) + i\arg(f(z)), \tag 2$
then
$e^{g(z)} = e^{ \ln (\vert f(z) \vert) + i\arg(f(z))} = e^{\ln(\vert f(z) \vert} e^{i\arg(f(z))} = \vert f(z) \vert e^{i\arg(f(z))} = f(z). \tag 3$
Now let $z_0 \in \Omega$ and consider the function
$F(z) = \displaystyle \int_{z_0}^z \dfrac{f'(s)}{f(s)}ds; \tag 4$
since $f(z)$ is holomorphic in $\Omega$, so is $f'(z)$, and since $f(z) \ne 0$ in $\Omega$, $f'(z)/ f(z)$ is a well -defined holomorphic function on this domain; furthermore, since $\Omega$ is simply connected, the integral (4) defining $F(z)$ is completely independent of the path along which is taken, just so that path remains in $\Omega$. (Simple connectedness implies that an integral of a holomorphic function over any closed path vanishes, which in turn implies that any two path integrals (of the same holomorphic function) 'twixt the same endpoints are equal. These are standard facts upon which the theory of holomorphic functions is built; they occur in many texts on the subject.) Thus $F(z)$ is a well-defined holomorphic function on $\Omega$. Now
$((f(z))^{-1}e^{F(z)})' = -(f(z))^{-2}f'(z)e^{F(z )} + (f(z))^{-1}(e^{F(z)})'$
$= -(f(z))^{-2}f'(z)e^{F(z )} + (f(z))^{-1}\dfrac{f'(z)}{f(z)} e^{F(z)} = 0; \tag 5$
thus
$(f(z))^{-1}e^{F(z)} = c, \tag 6$
a constant, whence
$e^{F(z)} = cf(z); \tag 7$
since $F(z_0) = 0$,
$cf(z_0) = e^{F(z_0)} = e^0 = 1, \tag 8$
whence
$c = (f(z_0))^{-1}, \tag 9$
leading via (7) to
$f(z) = f(z_0)e^{F(z)}; \tag {10}$
using (3), (10) becomes
$e^{g(z)} = e^{g(z_0)}e^{F(z)} = e^{g(z_0) + F(z)}, \tag{11}$
whence
$e^{g(z) - g(z_0) - F(z)} = 1, \tag{12}$
so
$g(z) - g(z_0) - F(z) = 2n\pi i \tag{13}$
for some $n \in \Bbb Z$; now taking $z = z_0$ in (13) yields, since $F(z_0) = 0$,
$2n\pi i = g(z_0) - g(z_0) = 0, \tag{14}$
whence $n = 0$ and
$g(z) = g(z_0) + F(z). \tag{15}$
In light of (2), this yields
$\ln (\vert f(z) \vert) + i \arg(f(z)) = g(z_0) + F(z), \tag{16}$
which implies that $\ln (\vert f(z) \vert) + i \arg(f(z))$ is holomorphic; thus both $\ln (\vert f(z) \vert)$ and $\arg(f(z))$ are harmonic, and are in fact harmonic conjugates of one another.
Note: This question generalizes
Finding Harmonic conjugate for $\arg(z)$
End of Note.