Help me to prove this please:
Let $X$ be a separable Banach space and $\hat{x}\in X^{**}$. If for all converging sequence $f_{n}\to_{\sigma(X^{*},X)} f$ in $X^{*}$ we have $\hat{x}(f_{n})\to\hat{x}(f)$, then $\hat{x}\in X$.
Help me to prove this please:
Let $X$ be a separable Banach space and $\hat{x}\in X^{**}$. If for all converging sequence $f_{n}\to_{\sigma(X^{*},X)} f$ in $X^{*}$ we have $\hat{x}(f_{n})\to\hat{x}(f)$, then $\hat{x}\in X$.
Let $r>0,\ B^{*}:=\{f\in X^{*}:\|f\|\leq r\}$. By the Krein-Smulian theorem, $S:=\hat{x}^{-1}(\{0\})$ is weak-closed if we can prove that $S\cap B^{*}$ is weak-closed. Let $x^{*}$ be in the weak-closure of $S\cap B$. Then $x^{*}\in B^{*}$, but since $X$ is separable, $B^{*}$ is metrizable in the weak-topology and therefore (using the hypithesis on $\hat{x}$) $<\hat{x},x^{*}>=0$. So, $S$ is closed and $\hat{x}$ continuous.