$f: \mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R$ be Lebesgue measurable , then there is a Borel measurable $g: \mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R$ such that $f=g$ a.e.?

Asked Mar 16 '17 at 14:00

Active Mar 16 '17 at 14:00

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Let $f: \mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R$ be a Lebesgue measurable function , then is it true that there exist a Borel measurable function $g: \mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R$ such that $f=g$ a.e. ?

asked Mar 16 '17 at 14:00

1

http://math.stackexchange.com/q/912232/1424 – Jonas Meyer Mar 16 '17 at 14:07
use Luzin's theorem? – GEdgar Mar 16 '17 at 14:35

$f: \mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R$ be Lebesgue measurable , then there is a Borel measurable $g: \mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R$ such that $f=g$ a.e.?

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