Can someone explain me,I am not able to understand last line (underlined)
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The last line uses the induction hypothesis i.e. $n!\leq n^n$ – Kushal Bhuyan Mar 14 '17 at 05:16
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See also https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1260233/inductive-proof-that-kkk-for-k-geq-2 – Arnaud D. Nov 29 '19 at 14:12
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$(n+1)!=(n+1)n!$ is valid by definition.
$(n+1)n! \le (n+1)n^n$ comes from the induction hypothesis.
From $n<n+1$ we get $n^n <(n+1)^n$ and therefore $(n+1)n^n<(n+1)^{n+1}$
Fred
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By definition $(n+1)!=(n+1)n!$.
By hypothesis, $n!\le n^n$ and so $(n+1)n!\le (n+1)n^n$.
Then, since $n<(n+1)$, $n^n<(n+1)^n$ and so $(n+1)n^n<(n+1)(n+1)^n=(n+1)^{n+1}$
Mark Viola
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