I found this question on an old exam paper - UK GCE A-Level (1972) - equivalent to university entrance level in most countries I believe. The method may be "standard" but has left me stumped. Maybe I am missing something obvious. Can someone give me a hint rather than a full worked solution?
Question
Calculate: $$\dfrac{1}{1\cdot 2\cdot 3}+\dfrac{1}{5\cdot 6\cdot 7}+\dfrac{1}{9\cdot 10\cdot 11}+\cdots$$
What do I notice?
It is an infinite series, so one of Geometric, Maclaurin, Taylor Series might be useful. The sum converges because each term is less than geometric series with ratio (0.5).
The terms are formed from "truncated" factorials (my expression)
So the series can be rewritten
$$\frac{0!}{3!}+\frac{4!}{7!}+\frac{8!}{11!}+\cdots$$
There are three successive positive integers in the denominators of each term in the original series and the multiples of 4 are missing from the denominators.
The integers "within" the factorials in the numerator and denominator are (arithmetically) increasing by 4.
Because it is an infinite series I can't hope to "group" the terms by finding common multiples.
So I get stuck.
Then I cheat and put: $\displaystyle\sum \frac{(4k-4)!}{(4k-1)!}$ into Wolfram Alpha.
The answer $\frac{\ln(2)}{4}$, pops out. So I feel an approach to solution might have something to do with the Maclaurin expansion of $\ln(1+x)$ but I can't get anywhere with this.
Any hints would be gratefully received.
Thanks,
Clive